Over the years, occasionally in my studies I have dabbled with the historical view of the church pertaining to marriage in light of birth control. Obviously, the Church has always stood against abortion, but what I found surprising is that from Jerome to supposedly Spurgeon you have a pretty solid consensus that the point of marriage is procreation and one "turns his wife into a harlot" in the words of Augustine if one has sex for pleasure and by means of birth control prevents pregnancy.
This started bothering me yesterday, because usually one can look to the consensus of the Church as a means of assuring right Scriptural interpretation. However, this one has me stumped. The Scripture calls children a blessing, but it also speaks of the marital union chiefly as a means of managing sexual desire (1 Cor 7). How can marriage be predicated upon the teaching "it is better to marry than to burn with passion" and elsewhere where Paul instructs widows to marry because "when they feel sensual desires in disregard of Christ, they want to get married," but not be about managing sexual desire?
Why would the Church universally ignore this are condemn the few that didn't (i.e. Jovanius) as heretics? Are we modern-people being the heretics?
This started bothering me yesterday, because usually one can look to the consensus of the Church as a means of assuring right Scriptural interpretation. However, this one has me stumped. The Scripture calls children a blessing, but it also speaks of the marital union chiefly as a means of managing sexual desire (1 Cor 7). How can marriage be predicated upon the teaching "it is better to marry than to burn with passion" and elsewhere where Paul instructs widows to marry because "when they feel sensual desires in disregard of Christ, they want to get married," but not be about managing sexual desire?
Why would the Church universally ignore this are condemn the few that didn't (i.e. Jovanius) as heretics? Are we modern-people being the heretics?