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Michelina

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isshinwhat said:
But though Christ suffered from the temporal afflictions related to the Fall, He did not suffer from concupiscence, is that correct? Neal

He did not suffer from concupiscence. He had the same human nature as Adam, before the fall.


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Aria said:
I don't know - what about fear to the point of sweating blood - wouldn't modern day psychiatry call that a disorder...

Hi, Aria. :) Considering what He was facing (which He understood better than we can), his reaction was normal and healthy. Another person might have died of a heart attack. I believe this is discussed in "A Doctor at Calvary", written by an M.D. who speaks about this rare phenomenon.
 
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isshinwhat

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The Fifth Ecumenical Council condemned the false teaching of Theodore of Mopsuestia, which stated that the Lord Jesus Christ was not deprived of inward temptations and the battle with passions. If the word of God says that the Son of God came: "in the likeness of sinful flesh" (Rom. 8:3), it is thereby expressing the idea that this flesh was true human flesh, but not sinful flesh; rather, it was completely pure of every sin and corruption, both of the ancestral sin and of voluntary sin. In His earthly life, the Lord was free of any sinful desire, of every inward temptation; for the human nature in Him does not exist separately, but is united hypostatically to the Divinity.


Good. Then Aria was correct in her statement that He had no inward desire to sin. In other words, Christ did not suffer from concupisence. Our Traditions are in agreement on that point.

Now, with that information, the statement "that which was not assumed was not healed" was in regards to the temporal effects of Original Sin which Christ took in His flesh, e.g. death, but not the eternal effect; being born without sanctifying grace in His soul. Correct?

God Bless,

Neal
 
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The Prokeimenon!

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None of us ever stop learning

I never stop learning, but I do take frequent breaks ;)


So, to clarify (for my own sake ;)): Christ was tempted by the devil, in every way, but these temptations never originated in His imagination. Would that be an Orthodox statement?

Moses
 
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isshinwhat

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Could someone tell me if I was correct in assuming this?

Now, with that information, the statement "that which was not assumed was not healed" was in regards to the temporal effects of Original Sin which Christ took in His flesh, e.g. death, but not the eternal effect; being born without sanctifying grace in His soul. Correct?
Thank you, and God bless,

Neal
 
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isshinwhat

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flo-puppy.jpg


[sad puppy eyes]Please....[/sad puppy eyes]
 
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Rick of Wessex

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Hi, Neal. :wave:

isshinwhat said:
Could someone tell me if I was correct in assuming this?

I believe you are. However, as Elizabeth mentioned somewhere else in TAW, the definition of grace in Orthodoxy is slight different from that od RC theology.

Your brother in XC,
Rick
 
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