Originally posted by Ben johnson
Paul says what he says. You and I disagree with "universal salvation", so then the only way to understand this verse, is that "propitiation is PROVIDED for all". The underlying understanding, is that He appeases the sins of all who receive Him.
But, Ben,...that's not what Paul or the verse you referrenced says. The verse says, "And He Himself
IS the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the whole world." He is the propitiation. It doesn't even imply that we have to do something for Him to make that propitiation manifest. Take a look at how this word is used again, in the same book:
1 John 4:9,10
In this the love of God was manifested toward us, that God has sent His only begotten Son into the world, that we might live through Him.<SUP> </SUP>In this is love,
NOT THAT WE LOVED GOD, BUT THAT HE LOVED US and sent His Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
Now tell me again, was the propitiation sent because we did anything, even loved God, or was Jesus sent as a propitiation because God loved us? Why is it again that those people who do love God actually are able to love Him? Hey, I know:
1 John 4:19
We love Him
BECAUSE He first loved us.
One more thing...a propitiation
IS an appeasement. It's not a "could be an appeasement" type statement.
What about Heb10:29, "how much severer punishment will he deserve who has trampled underfoot the Son of God and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he WAS SANCTIFIED"?
Not sure what you believe this has to do with Jesus being a propitiation. This deals more with your favorite topic, that of apostasy.
And, Rev3:5, "He who overcomes will be clothed in white garments, and I will NOT BLOT HIS NAME from the Book of Life"?

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Goodness man. Do you give God credit for anything regarding your salvation? Anyway, again, this deals with falling away, not being saved.
God bless