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Literal Translation of the Bible, (Where Applicable)?.?.?

2PhiloVoid

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I continue to appreciate the learning lessons you are providing for me. Some topics are very simple, and some topics are not. This one seems very straight forward. Did it happen, yes or no? If it didn't, and the author claims it did, well, there's a problem. If a claim is meant to be literal, like the flood, then why use hermeneutics?

Have you seen the movie, No Country for Old Men? There is a part which speaks volumes in this social setting. And that is, 'use the one right tool for the job.' In this very specific case, hermeneutics is not. Just like my analogy.... If one is writing a nonfictional account, and one of the main events is demonstrated false, it is no longer a nonfictional account.

So what is the right tool? Well, in my estimation, not hermeneutics for this specific venue.

Thanks

Yes, I've seen No Country for Old Men, and I can appreciate the quote, especially when I, like you, apply hermeneutics to understand Chigurh's statement. It's that "context" thing again. But, I could be wrong, and maybe I'm misunderstanding Chigurh's reference when he says what he says to the accountant.

So, assuming that I'm wrong [and maybe I am], do you have the secret files revealing where Moses got his supposed information for The Flood? I'm asking because I sure don't have them, and since you have access to "the right tool for the job," I thought you might be able to share it with the rest of us.
 
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cvanwey

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Yes, I've seen No Country for Old Men, and I can appreciate the quote, especially when I, like you, apply hermeneutics to understand Chigurh's statement. It's that "context" thing again.

Yes, and to drive the point home, when an event is deemed literal, like Pearl Harbor, nukes in Japan 1945, Mount Saint Helens in 1980, or in this case, 'Noah's flood', all such events are deemed literal. They literally happened. Yet, I have positive evidence for the first three, but not so much with the fourth, in a flood claim. Asking whether the event happened or not, determining whether the event happened or not, investigation to the claims of such events happening or not, requires no 'historical interpretation' of sorts.

I can appreciate context as much as the next person, but if you can please revisit the title of my OP, it speaks about literal interpretive events (where applicable). So is the flood one of them? I believe so. And events, which are established as literal, do not require 'context', when simply asking if they happened or not.

You strike me as a fella whom might appreciate a good move. Hence, I decided to throw this contextual point at you. I'm glad to see you got it.

But in the future, to ad hom me, and then state you are going to no longer engage, does little to support your character. Just saying....

Peace!
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Yes, and to drive the point home, when an event is deemed literal, like Pearl Harbor, nukes in Japan 1945, Mount Saint Helens in 1980, or in this case, 'Noah's flood', all such events are deemed literal. They literally happened. Yet, I have positive evidence for the first three, but not so much with the fourth, in a flood claim. Asking whether the event happened or not, determining whether the event happened or not, investigation to the claims of such events happening or not, requires no 'historical interpretation' of sorts.

I can appreciate context as much as the next person, but if you can please revisit the title of my OP, it speaks about literal interpretive events (where applicable). So is the flood one of them? I believe so. And events, which are established as literal, do not require 'context', when simply asking if they happened or not.

You strike me as a fella whom might appreciate a good move. Hence, I decided to throw this contextual point at you. I'm glad to see you got it.

But in the future, to ad hom me, and then state you are going to no longer engage, does little to support your character. Just saying....

Peace!

I doubt anyone here is thinking "2PV is SUCH a pathetic person, just a hypocrite all the way around!!!" But, if someone chooses to secretly harbor that kind of attitude behind my cyber-back, then they can be my guest in doing so. I'm actually not really concerned about that. They can judge me all they want! In fact, I invite them to. :cool:
 
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cvanwey

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Of course, if you're indeed a great Mathematician, or even just the world's greatest Bible Skeptic, you'll probably have to haggle with @Nihilist Virus over which of you is actually in the "top spot." ;)

I appreciate that you would even consider to place me in such company.

But quite frankly, I'm not sure why my background may be relevant, or what I do for a living has anything to do with the responses provided. They should instead be evaluated upon their own merit(s). Would my responses be any less or more valid if I was William Lane Craig, Sean Carrol, or the night janitor for Taco Bell? Not really. I'd rather have such responses judged upon their own value. Hence, why I recently created the topic "What If...?"

And as for this topic, it is simple. Some events from the Bible are written as literal. The flood is quite obviously one of them. So to even bring up context, in this specific application, is quite perplexing.
 
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cvanwey

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Sorry, I don't see the dichotomy. I'm fine saying that the biblical flood story is a theological update and corrective to the earlier Sumerian flood myth. I don't think it literally happened, but there are far more than two options here.

In regards to it happening, not happening, no. But you agree with me, so there is little to quibble about on this specific point really... But my point is I conclude that the author intended for this event to be actual. And this is where the problem only begins for me.

The Problem of Evil immediately enters the radar. It kind of is the radar with a lot of religious writing.

I'm not even addressing any possible moral implications attached. If you wish to, that's fine. In this thread, I'm simply addressing the black and white claimed literal events 'said' to have happened. Not the moral reasons attached to their claims....

But I do get a kick out of some apologists, whom love to dance around such obvious observations.


That doesn't really sound like "differing sects and denominations." It just sounds like fundamentalist mega-churches over and over again. You would have gotten a better impression of Christianity as a whole if you'd talked to people outside of that little corner of the world as well.

No, I spoke to many sects, bigger and some smaller as well. Catholics included. But this further kind of demonstrates my point. There exists one real answer to each such questions. It seems as though people of religion are somewhat 'off limits' to scrutiny and deep inquiry. Many do not want their beliefs questioned. Not all, but many.... But in reality, I find it odd that we have a large book of stories, for millenia and counting, and yet there continues to exist deep division, upon many conclusions. One might think many of such writings would have been universalized by now?..?.? But hey, I'm just an ignorant naive simpleton.

There exists no universal conclusions or answers to practically any claim from the Bible. Odd really. Not even WITHIN the exact same sect. It's a free-for-all.


There's no reason epochs have to be equal in length. Geological ones certainly aren't.

(Not meant to be answered, or to be a straw man argument. But feel free to respond if you wish of course)...

Well, I'll give you a quick example. I was in deep discussion with an 'old-earther'. We were discussing the creation days. He stated they are not literal 24 hours days. But on 'day 6' is when animals and humans are created. For this to be possible, millions of years would need to transpire between the beginning of animals and the start of humans. So if day 6 needed to be millions of years long to be completed, then how did the very first humans live past the 'first week' of the creation account? (rhetorical question)... I already know a savvy apologist can interject with arguments. Just letting you know, I've spoken to alternate views.

But my point is, only one position could be right. Seems peculiar that after thousands of years of study, there exists such deep division, with no standard to address. Even here, the translation is wide, far, and divided. And yet, I see very little of you guys hashing such conclusions out with one another. Just instead with the skeptics, doubters, and atheists, whom openly admit they are in doubt or disbelieve to the entire premise.

I feel religion gets a free pass to say whatever they want, and almost not be challenged internally. When under the content of religious dogma, one seems to be allowed to say practically anything and not be judged, critiqued, or questioned. It seems to be the one venue compartmentalized, and revered as sacred and almost off limits.


The sort of standardization you think is necessary really doesn't make sense outside of the modern context. The ancient Jews didn't exactly have clocks and watches--they wouldn't have broken time up into quite the same standardized segments that we do now.

I do not adhere to how new or old, just what is... But please read above, as this was already addressed.

And it was all written within living memory. People didn't automatically drop dead at age 40 in antiquity.

Almost half of the NT docs were provided by Sal, I agree. The other half, good question. It's fairly safe to conclude 'John' was written well past the life expectancy, for such a 'John' to have wrote it. And when comparing John to Mark, you must admit the differences are quite vast, more in line with large later embellishments.


You'd need to have an agenda to think that the New Testament can be approached like the Old Testament. They are totally different types of historical records.

All religious text has an agenda. But I know the OT and NT differ in their origins, in many ways. The OT seems more in line with what we spoke about prior in brief.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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I appreciate that you would even consider to place me in such company.

But quite frankly, I'm not sure why my background may be relevant, or what I do for a living has anything to do with the responses provided. They should instead be evaluated upon their own merit(s). Would my responses be any less or more valid if I was William Lane Craig, Sean Carrol, or the night janitor for Taco Bell? Not really. I'd rather have such responses judged upon their own value. Hence, why I recently created the topic "What If...?"
Oh my! You sound like my Dad!

While I'm all for most people being entitled most of the time to air their viewpoints into the public air, there is such a thing as over-extending one's actual academic weight into other fields. Like for instance, if I want to know about Physics, I can read Einstein or Bohr and pretty much be assured that I'm going to get some good, solid, basic information in the 'truths' of Physics. But if I were to ask Einstein a question about Human Psychology, I should probably take what he says, even if his answer is seemingly wise, with a grain of salt, maybe two or three grains of salt. Likewise, if I want to consider some issues in the field of Astro-Physics, I'll listen to someone like Neil deGrasse Tyson, but I'm going to again take with a few grains of salt when hearing his views on something like the nature of the Christian faith (although we both know that he's a bit more easy going on believers than are the more hard-core New Atheist type of skeptics.....)

And as for this topic, it is simple. Some events from the Bible are written as literal. The flood is quite obviously one of them. So to even bring up context, in this specific application, is quite perplexing.
Yes. And I'm confident that whoever wrote about the Flood in Genesis (Moses?) meant for the narrative to carry some kind of truth about reality. The problem here is, you're asking me to take your word for "how" we should most perceive the literary nature of the Flood account over that of someone like Jacob Neusner. I mean, can you think of a good reason why I should? I can't. And it's not because I somehow think you're deficient in I.Q. No, you're more than sufficient in that.

The reason I defer to scholars of various sorts when I deliberate over the Bible's contents is because, in and of myself, I KNOW that I'm deficient and essentially speaking "outside" of my area of degreed study, and it's not enough for me to simply proffer to everyone here "Hey, listen to me! I've got degrees of various sorts, so that means I've got the TRUTH!" I know from the get go that 'my opinion' in and of itself is not necessarily as good as that of those with much more expertise in any given field. So, I'm going to instead suggest that we all listen to thinkers better than ourselves as at least a part of the process by which we arrive at our conclusions and evaluations, especially when we handle something archaic like the Bible. And this would include studying thinkers who come at the Bible from both the pro and con side of things.

Was the Flood literal? In a sense, "Yes." BUT, I'm not so sure that the intention of the original writer to be "literal" in this frame of reference is the same as ours since he was writing in a certain worldview belonging to a certain era, and we both know that his era operated with a quite different paradigm than does our much, much later 21st century, Scientifically Enlightened era. The Flood writer's paradigm was even a bit different than that of the Greco-Roman paradigm within which the New Testament writers wrote. So, in realizing all of this, the field of Hermeneutics helps us to take that this into account and realize that we can't simply say that, "The Flood account is literal." No, there's more to it than that.
 
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cvanwey

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Oh my! You sound like my Dad!

While I'm all for most people being entitled most of the time to air their viewpoints into the public air, there is such a thing as over-extending one's actual academic weight into other fields. Like for instance, if I want to know about Physics, I can read Einstein or Bohr and pretty much be assured that I'm going to get some good, solid, basic information in the 'truths' of Physics. But if I were to ask Einstein a question about Human Psychology, I should probably take what he says, even if his answer is seemingly wise, with a grain of salt, maybe two or three grains of salt. Likewise, if I want to consider some issues in the field of Astro-Physics, I'll listen to someone like Neil deGrasse Tyson, but I'm going to again take with a few grains of salt when hearing his views on something like the nature of the Christian faith (although we both know that he's a bit more easy going on believers than are the more hard-core New Atheist type of skeptics.....)

Well, I sincerely doubt people are coming to a forum arena to get their own world's most difficult questions resolved, once and for all ;) Most have already formulated their conclusions, and instead want to debate, share, and receive validation of their own beliefs and ideas. Many may still be on the fence, like me. But I find, as I read the responses from others, that my 'gut instincts' appear more validated at every turn. That indoctrination is the only glue which appears to hold my prior belief structure slightly in check. I'm sorry. I actually wish there was a sound argument to logically hold for Christianity, and I actually continue to look for one, quite frankly. But the more I converse with Christians, the more I realize, when removing emotion entirely, the more the arguments lack in seeming 'truth', and instead gear more towards the sheer 'wanting' for it to be true.


I instead come here to exchange ideas, to see if they hold any water. The personal topics I post here, or engage upon, are the ones which either are some of the largest which seem to drive a wedge between emotion verses logic, or the ones which appear the most inconsistent, verses their respective truth claims. I gathered all my prior conclusions most likely the same ways as you; through reading, study, pondering, debating, exploring, experiences, etc... And so far, it would appear that there appears no large holes in my very simple synopsis. Am I perfect, of course not! However, this one is very very very simple.... Which is, 'no flood no Bible'. Especially when you add the other claims, which would appear to have also been meant to be just as literal, into the mix.


Yes. And I'm confident that whoever wrote about the Flood in Genesis (Moses?) meant for the narrative to carry some kind of truth about reality. The problem here is, you're asking me to take your word for "how" we should most perceive the literary nature of the Flood account over that of someone like Jacob Neusner. I mean, can you think of a good reason why I should? I can't. And it's not because I somehow think you're deficient in I.Q. No, you're more than sufficient in that.

The reason I defer to scholars of various sorts when I deliberate over the Bible's contents is because, in and of myself, I KNOW that I'm deficient and essentially speaking "outside" of my area of degreed study, and it's not enough for me to simply proffer to everyone here "Hey, listen to me! I've got degrees of various sorts, so that means I've got the TRUTH!" I know from the get go that 'my opinion' in and of itself is not necessarily as good as that of those with much more expertise in any given field. So, I'm going to instead suggest that we all listen to thinkers better than ourselves as at least a part of the process by which we arrive at our conclusions and evaluations, especially when we handle something archaic like the Bible. And this would include studying thinkers who come at the Bible from both the pro and con side of things.

Was the Flood literal? In a sense, "Yes." BUT, I'm not so sure that the intention of the original writer to be "literal" in this frame of reference is the same as ours since he was writing in a certain worldview belonging to a certain era, and we both know that his era operated with a quite different paradigm than does our much, much later 21st century, Scientifically Enlightened era. The Flood writer's paradigm was even a bit different than that of the Greco-Roman paradigm within which the New Testament writers wrote. So, in realizing all of this, the field of Hermeneutics helps us to take that this into account and realize that we can't simply say that, "The Flood account is literal." No, there's more to it than that.[/QUOTE]

Again, we are on the opposite ends of the extreme here. I care not to re-issue yet another rebuttal response.
 
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2PhiloVoid

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Well, I sincerely doubt people are coming to a forum arena to get their own world's most difficult questions resolved, once and for all ;) Most have already formulated their conclusions, and instead want to debate, share, and receive validation of their own beliefs and ideas. Many may still be on the fence, like me. But I find, as I read the responses from others, that my 'gut instincts' appear more validated at every turn. That indoctrination is the only glue which appears to hold my prior belief structure slightly in check. I'm sorry. I actually wish there was a sound argument to logically hold for Christianity, and I actually continue to look for one, quite frankly. But the more I converse with Christians, the more I realize, when removing emotion entirely, the more the arguments lack in seeming 'truth', and instead gear more towards the sheer 'wanting' for it to be true.

I instead come here to exchange ideas, to see if they hold any water. The personal topics I post here, or engage upon, are the ones which either are some of the largest which seem to drive a wedge between emotion verses logic, or the ones which appear the most inconsistent, verses their respective truth claims. I gathered all my prior conclusions most likely the same ways as you; through reading, study, pondering, debating, exploring, experiences, etc...
True, I'm sure we've both done a lot of those things, but the problem in saying that is there is a slight equivocation going on since I'm sure that [the SET] that constitutes my "reading, studying, pondering, debating, exploring, experiencing" isn't identical to your [SET] of these kinds of activities. So, I think it's probably just the nature of the beast that we are drawing different conclusions since our respective [SETS] of reading and deliberation are different.

And so far, it would appear that there appears no large holes in my very simple synopsis. Am I perfect, of course not! However, this one is very very very simple.... Which is, 'no flood no Bible'. Especially when you add the other claims, which would appear to have also been meant to be just as literal, into the mix.
.........I'm not sure I follow your logic in that "no flood" equals no form of Revelation in the Bible of any kind whatsoever, whether it be historical, poetic, metaphysical, theological, or whatever. You may have to explain further how the structures of various historical method(s) fully imply that "no flood" equals "no Bible."


Again, we are on the opposite ends of the extreme here. I care not to re-issue yet another rebuttal response.
Are we at opposite ends of the spectrum? For all practical purposes, I'm a skeptic in that I never just take anyone's word for too much of anything, which is why my own view of things requires that I read, research, and investigate as many views and evaluations as possible so I can best draw together what I think is the most coherent position on the possible essence of our existential reality.

Ok. So, now that you've defeated us Christians and proven that the Flood didn't happen and that Jesus didn't rise from the dead, what's next? :)
 
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cvanwey

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True, I'm sure we've both done a lot of those things, but the problem in saying that is there is a slight equivocation going on since I'm sure that [the SET] that constitutes my "reading, studying, pondering, debating, exploring, experiencing" isn't identical to your [SET] of these kinds of activities. So, I think it's probably just the nature of the beast that we are drawing different conclusions since our respective [SETS] of reading and deliberation are different.

.........I'm not sure I follow your logic in that "no flood" equals no form of Revelation in the Bible of any kind whatsoever, whether it be historical, poetic, metaphysical, theological, or whatever. You may have to explain further how the structures of various historical method(s) fully imply that "no flood" equals "no Bible."


Are we at opposite ends of the spectrum? For all practical purposes, I'm a skeptic in that I never just take anyone's word for too much of anything, which is why my own view of things requires that I read, research, and investigate as many views and evaluations as possible so I can best draw together what I think is the most coherent position on the possible essence of our existential reality.

Ok. So, now that you've defeated us Christians and proven that the Flood didn't happen and that Jesus didn't rise from the dead, what's next? :)

LOL, you are funny. :)

I'm exploring questions and concerns which drive the 'wedge' in my increasing disbelief; that's all...

I place topics of interest here, let them marinate, and see what sticks and what doesn't. I am completely honest, and wish to air those grievances in a public forum. Because quite frankly, more people here will listen and respond, verses instead trying to issue such observations at work, home, or in public elsewhere. Providing them here, is much more efficient and diverse, quite frankly.

In regards to your concern.... For ME, it's very simple....

The INTENT, I have concluded, was that the flood, and other events, were written as nonfiction. So if they turn out to be false, we have a problem. Again, it's like the Thor comic book you presented in another thread. If the intent, all along, was fiction, then interpretation almost becomes superfluous, for many intents and purposes....

Can you at least appreciate this simple contention, even though your thoughts may differ? Does it at least make sense? I hope so.

I do appreciate your continued responses. And believe it or not, respect them. I just very much disagree. And that's okay. It would be very boring to enter a forum arena, where everyone agreed... A matter of fact, the forum probably would not stick around.

Peace, and see you out there in the trenched.
 
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cvanwey

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Ok. So, now that you've defeated us Christians and proven that the Flood didn't happen and that Jesus didn't rise from the dead, what's next? :)

"I'm going to Disney Land!"

Sorry, I couldn't resist :)
 
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Silmarien

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In regards to it happening, not happening, no. But you agree with me, so there is little to quibble about on this specific point really... But my point is I conclude that the author intended for this event to be actual. And this is where the problem only begins for me.

How can you conclude that the author intended anything at all? If the story of Noah's Ark was adapted from a Sumerian myth, there would have been no specific author.

I'm not even addressing any possible moral implications attached. If you wish to, that's fine. In this thread, I'm simply addressing the black and white claimed literal events 'said' to have happened. Not the moral reasons attached to their claims....

But I do get a kick out of some apologists, whom love to dance around such obvious observations.

I'm not dancing around the fact that Genesis can't be taken literally. It wouldn't have even occurred to me to take it literally in the first place, though, so I don't see what the problem is. If you want to go fight with a literalist instead, be my guest, but don't accuse anyone else of dancing around what they see no need to defend at all.

No, I spoke to many sects, bigger and some smaller as well. Catholics included. But this further kind of demonstrates my point. There exists one real answer to each such questions. It seems as though people of religion are somewhat 'off limits' to scrutiny and deep inquiry. Many do not want their beliefs questioned. Not all, but many.... But in reality, I find it odd that we have a large book of stories, for millenia and counting, and yet there continues to exist deep division, upon many conclusions. One might think many of such writings would have been universalized by now?..?.? But hey, I'm just an ignorant naive simpleton.

I don't think you understand how any field of study works. We come closest to a system of universalization in the physical sciences, and even there, it is unclear whether a unified "theory of everything" is ever going to be feasible. Once we move into the realms of history and literature, problems multiply, and historians and critics have countless different opinions about what things actually mean.

Reality is tricky. I'm not sure why you would expect religion to be handed to us on a silver platter if nothing else has been.

There exists no universal conclusions or answers to practically any claim from the Bible. Odd really. Not even WITHIN the exact same sect. It's a free-for-all.

No, it's not. There are some pretty universal conclusions concerning the New Testament.

Well, I'll give you a quick example. I was in deep discussion with an 'old-earther'. We were discussing the creation days. He stated they are not literal 24 hours days. But on 'day 6' is when animals and humans are created. For this to be possible, millions of years would need to transpire between the beginning of animals and the start of humans. So if day 6 needed to be millions of years long to be completed, then how did the very first humans live past the 'first week' of the creation account? (rhetorical question)... I already know a savvy apologist can interject with arguments. Just letting you know, I've spoken to alternate views.

Sounds like your old-earther is as oblivious as your new-earther to the concept of literary devices. Why either wants to treat Genesis 1 like a scientific treatise and try to use it to measure concrete time is quite beyond me.

But my point is, only one position could be right. Seems peculiar that after thousands of years of study, there exists such deep division, with no standard to address. Even here, the translation is wide, far, and divided. And yet, I see very little of you guys hashing such conclusions out with one another. Just instead with the skeptics, doubters, and atheists, whom openly admit they are in doubt or disbelieve to the entire premise.

This isn't really a problem that is thousands of years old. Fighting over precisely how old the universe might be is a fairly recent development. If you want debates that are thousands of years old, you want to look at the Christological controversies instead. Now those are fun.

If you wandered into the theological forums, I'm sure you'd find people arguing about this stuff with each other. I'm not sure why you'd expect those of us who don't take it literally to be hashing it out with people who do, though. Why should I waste my time arguing over something I don't care about? I only posted here because you expressly requested responses from non-literalists.

I feel religion gets a free pass to say whatever they want, and almost not be challenged internally. When under the content of religious dogma, one seems to be allowed to say practically anything and not be judged, critiqued, or questioned. It seems to be the one venue compartmentalized, and revered as sacred and almost off limits.

In that case, maybe you should spend more time with the parts of the religious world that do engage in internal and external debate, rather than those that don't.

Almost half of the NT docs were provided by Sal, I agree. The other half, good question. It's fairly safe to conclude 'John' was written well past the life expectancy, for such a 'John' to have wrote it. And when comparing John to Mark, you must admit the differences are quite vast, more in line with large later embellishments.

It's not safe to conclude anything at all about the Gospel of John. According to tradition, John was the youngest of the apostles, and outlived the rest, dying of natural causes. Even the typical dating of that Gospel to 90 AD is not beyond life expectancy, and that is assuming it wasn't penned by a disciple of his in his name later.

But yes, there are stylistic differences. I think there's a reasonable argument to be made that what's going on there is theological speculation on the part of a disciple years afterwards rather than embellishment on the part of a larger community.
 
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cvanwey

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How can you conclude that the author intended anything at all? If the story of Noah's Ark was adapted from a Sumerian myth, there would have been no specific author.

Because it was written in the Bible, pretty simple. It either happened, or it didn't, again, pretty simple. And according to God Himself, it did:

'13 So God said to Noah, “I am going to put an end to all people, for the earth is filled with violence because of them. I am surely going to destroy both them and the earth. 14 So make yourself an ark of cypressc]">[c] wood; make rooms in it and coat it with pitch inside and out. 15 This is how you are to build it: The ark is to be three hundred cubits long, fifty cubits wide and thirty cubits high.'

etc.............................

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If it's not to be literal, why the plethora of specific details?

I'm not dancing around the fact that Genesis can't be taken literally. It wouldn't have even occurred to me to take it literally in the first place, though, so I don't see what the problem is. If you want to go fight with a literalist instead, be my guest, but don't accuse anyone else of dancing around what they see no need to defend at all.

I never said you did. I stated some apologists. You are a unique breed.

I don't think you understand how any field of study works. We come closest to a system of universalization in the physical sciences, and even there, it is unclear whether a unified "theory of everything" is ever going to be feasible. Once we move into the realms of history and literature, problems multiply, and historians and critics have countless different opinions about what things actually mean.

Reality is tricky. I'm not sure why you would expect religion to be handed to us on a silver platter if nothing else has been.

Thanks for the lesson and for the ad hom. You've missed my point, but that's okay....

Skipping to the end, as some below is rather redundant....


It's not safe to conclude anything at all about the Gospel of John. According to tradition, John was the youngest of the apostles, and outlived the rest, dying of natural causes. Even the typical dating of that Gospel to 90 AD is not beyond life expectancy, and that is assuming it wasn't penned by a disciple of his in his name later.

But yes, there are stylistic differences. I think there's a reasonable argument to be made that what's going on there is theological speculation on the part of a disciple years afterwards rather than embellishment on the part of a larger community.

No one knows who wrote John. And the timeline is also undetermined. However, when one reads the progression, from Mark to John, it demonstrates possible growing legend. You are right on one account however I believe (that some NT stuff is universal); it is widely held that Mark was published first, of the 4 Gospels. So read Mark 16:8, then read 9-20. Then read Matthew and Luke. And then read John. My point is the supernatural tales increase quite significantly, from Mark to John - the seemingly final published Gospel. It's safe to say Mark and John were published decades of each other. To me, this speaks or demonstrates growing legend.

Heck, Mark 16:8 to Mark 16:9 alone demonstrate later embellishments; let alone reading a completely different account entirely.

And yes, almost 50% of the entire NT is from one man, Sal.
 
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Silmarien

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Because it was written in the Bible, pretty simple. It either happened, or it didn't, again, pretty simple. And according to God Himself, it did:

'13 So God said to Noah, “I am going to put an end to all people, for the earth is filled with violence because of them. I am surely going to destroy both them and the earth. 14 So make yourself an ark of cypressc]">[c] wood; make rooms in it and coat it with pitch inside and out. 15 This is how you are to build it: The ark is to be three hundred cubits long, fifty cubits wide and thirty cubits high.'

etc.............................

**********

If it's not to be literal, why the plethora of specific details?

I assume you understand how mythology works. A plethora of specific details are not at all uncommon, and deities speak all the time. The fact that God is quoted does not mean that God himself is weighing in and saying that it happened, anymore than God's presence in Job means that Job is genuinely historical.

Unless you adhere to the tradition that Moses wrote the entire Torah, there is no known author of Genesis. If it was an adaptation of a Sumerian myth, then it is unlikely that there was a specific author and impossible to know precisely what they were thinking.

You are treating the authors of the Old Testament as if they lived in the 21st century and thought in the same way that we do. It is unclear whether they even viewed reality in sharp categories of fact and fiction. Worldviews and mindsets change drastically in 2500 years, and you need to take that into consideration when trying to figure out what authors in antiquity actually intended.

No one knows who wrote John. And the timeline is also undetermined. However, when one reads the progression, from Mark to John, it demonstrates possible growing legend. You are right on one account however I believe (that some NT stuff is universal); it is widely held that Mark was published first, of the 4 Gospels. So read Mark 16:8, then read 9-20. Then read Matthew and Luke. And then read John. My point is the supernatural tales increase quite significantly, from Mark to John - the seemingly final published Gospel. It's safe to say Mark and John were published decades of each other. To me, this speaks or demonstrates growing legend.

Aside from the Virgin Birth, you don't see a significant increase in supernatural tales in Matthew and Luke compared to Mark, so I don't see a growing legend from one Gospel to the next. Just variations of the same story based upon the witness of various communities years after the fact. I would expect some embellishment, and perhaps even complete fabrication, but you need more than a handful of decades for oral tradition to evolve into something unrecognizable.

John is weird, though. I'm unconvinced that it's even meant to be taken literally, but theologically, I don't really see a sharp disconnect between it and the Synoptics. It's just stylistically out in left field.

Heck, Mark 16:8 to Mark 16:9 alone demonstrate later embellishments; let alone reading a completely different account entirely.

Mark 16:9-20 is a completely different account, and may well have been written after the rest of the Gospels, so I'm not sure what you think it's evidence for.

And yes, almost 50% of the entire NT is from one man, Sal.

Unlikely. Most scholars only accept 7 of the Pauline Epistles as authentic.

I'm not sure why you think the composition of the New Testament would be shocking, though. Some of us do read biblical scholarship, you know. It's possible to approach this stuff primarily as a historical document rather than taking everything it says for granted.
 
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