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LITERAL Interpretation != ACCURATE Interpretation

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Contrarian

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LITERAL Interpretation != ACCURATE Interpretation


NOTE:
!= means "DOES NOT EQUAL"




[Quick, my two posts in Interdenominational Doctrinal Debate have been removed...seems like

certain people are AFRAID of Answering simple questions and comments........
1. Literal Interpretation != Accurate Interpretation
2. Why do Baptists still use WATER instead of the HOLY SPIRIT Post?]
]
 

sbbqb7n16

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Under certain conditions... Matthew 1 should not be interpretted figuaratively. Would you agree?

Then we are not at liberty to decide which passages should be literal and/or figurative are we. Because some can also be both... Some prophetic passages serve multifunctions.
 
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AndOne

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Your questions/points really do not make any sense - perhaps if they did - you'd get more responses. For instance - I know for a fact that the Babtists do not base their entire denomination on Mark 16:16 - so I feel like its not necessary to respond since it appears that you have no idea what you are talking about.
 
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sbbqb7n16

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Yesterday at 06:48 PM Gideon4God said this in Post #4

"If the literal sense makes good sense, seek no other sense, lest it result in nonsense."

Does anyone know who wrote/said this?

Anonymous :D

Sorry I looked it up on a search engine and that's seriously all that I found who said it. Guess you can start claiming it as your own if you'd like :) Used a a rule for Biblical Hermaneutics (sp?). Oh well have a great day!
 
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Edouard

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This conversation is a mute one.
It is not based on positive criticism, rather proving oneself right.
Scripture is written on both, figuratively and literal.
However, from what I have seen 90% is figurative, but it also deals within the context of what is written and to whom.

Christ commanded us to be baptized by the water and the Spirit.
not just by water. hence read John 1- 3

Read Matthew 28.
Read the book of Romans.
Read James.
We are saved by grace, justified by faith.
And yes If we love our God, we obey His commands laid out in His word.

Now what is your specific question?

edouard
May God convict your heart, and may you bear fruit and not wilt. Amen.
 
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Gideon4God

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I tend to view the Bible in a literal way: 

Illustration: God promised Adam and Eve that the Seed of the woman would come. He did. Noah was warned of a flood. It came. Abraham's seed were promised a land. They received it. Moses was promised victory in leading Israel from Egypt; he did it. Rebellious Israel was warned of their coming dispersion; it came. The prophets promised Israel that God would return them to their home-land. He is doing it as we write. The virgin birth was foretold. It came to pass. The death, burial and resurrection of Jesus Christ was prophesied. It took place. The destruction of the temple and of the nation was prophesied. It happened.

If these and hundreds of prophecies like them were literal and proved to be so, why should the Bible believer assume that remaining prophesies are to be spiritualized and applied to the church? One opens himself to serious error when the literal approach to the Bible is rejected. A study of dispensations demands a literal interpretation of Scripture.
 
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Gideon4God

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Today at 06:35 PM paulewog said this in Post #8



They haevn't received all of it yet, they never have. :D

 
The Fourth Dispensation: Promise. For Abraham, and his descendants it is evident that the Abrahamic Covenant (See Scofield "Genesis 15:18") made a great change. They became distinctively the heirs of promise. That covenant is wholly gracious and unconditional. The descendants of Abraham had but to abide in their own land to inherit every blessing. In Egypt they lost their blessings, but not their covenant. The Dispensation of Promise ended when Israel rashly accepted the law Exodus 19:8. Grace had prepared a deliverer (Moses), provided a sacrifice for the guilty, and by divine power brought them out of bondage Exodus 19:4 but at Sinai they exchanged grace for law. The Dispensation of Promise extends from Genesis 12:1 to Exodus 19:8, and was exclusively Israelitish. The dispensation must be distinguished from the covenant. The former is a mode of testing; the latter is everlasting because unconditional. The law did not abrogate the Abrahamic Covenant Galatians 3:15-18 but was an intermediate disciplinary dealing "till the Seed should come to whom the promise was made" ; Galatians 3:19-29; 4:1-7. Only the dispensation, as a testing of Israel, ended at the giving of the law.

(1) "I will make of thee a great nation." Fulfilled in a threefold way: (a) In a natural posterity--"as the dust of the earth Genesis 13:16; John 8:37, viz. the Hebrew people. (b) In a spiritual posterity--"look now toward heaven . . . so shall thy seed be" John 8:39; Romans 4:16,17; 9:7,8; Galatians 3:6,7,29 viz. all men of faith, whether Jew or Gentile. (c) fulfilled also through Ishmael Genesis 17:18-20

Old Scofield Study Bible

 
 
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