~Nikki~
aka northstar
Thanks for that.madison1101 said:Matthew 19: 8Jesus replied, Moses permitted you to divorce your wives because your hearts were hard. But it was not this way from the beginning. 9I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, and marries another woman commits adultery.
Deuteronomy 24
1 If a man marries a woman who becomes displeasing to him because he finds something indecent about her, and he writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, 2 and if after she leaves his house she becomes the wife of another man, 3 and her second husband dislikes her and writes her a certificate of divorce, gives it to her and sends her from his house, or if he dies, 4 then her first husband, who divorced her, is not allowed to marry her again after she has been defiled. That would be detestable in the eyes of the LORD . Do not bring sin upon the land the LORD your God is giving you as an inheritance.
I always thought that in Matthew, Jesus was quoting the Deuteronomy passage and saying that the standard is actually higher than that.
In Matthew 5 Jesus says (referring to Deuteronomy 24) "It has been said....but I tell you..." and Matthew 19 Jesus says "Moses because of the hardness of your hearts permitted you...but from the beginning it was not so. And I say unto you, whosoever shall put away his wife...."
In both of those Jesus quoted the Deuteronomy passage and then said that 'it has been said...but I tell you' and 'Moses permitted...and I say'. In the sermon on the mount which the Matthew 5 passage is part of, Jesus continually said to the people 'you have heard it said...but now I say' so basically continually saying that the standard is actually higher than that.
Also in my understanding, the word in the Matthew passages for 'except for adultery/sexual immorality', is actually not a correct translation. The word in Greek is our word for fornication (sex before marriage). As far as I'm aware (though there may be more to it than this) the Jews there would have understood it as meaning that if the groom on the wedding night discovered his bride was not actually a virgin he could take her before the priests the next morning and divorce her. His remarriage would not be committing adultery because she would dead, having been stoned for the fact that she had committed fornication.
The rest of the verse in Matthew 19 which was quoted says...
"whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery" (oops sorry, just looked it up in the NIV and it doesn't have this...however, in my version - NKJV - it does)
Anyway, the reason I asked was because as far as I'm aware the Bible (except in Deuteronomy - and Jesus says in Matthew that the standard is higher than that) doesn't say anywhere that 'you may remarry if this has happened or that situation has happened' (except after the death of the spouse). Obviously the Bible says that divorce happens, but everywhere it talks about remarriage after divorce (and while the spouse is still alive) it says that the person would be committing adultery. Also, in Corinthians it says that if a woman leaves her husband she must either stay single or be reconciled with him, and that a husband must not divorce his wife.
I know others will have different opinions to me, but I'm just saying what I feel the Word of God teaches...
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