I never used the word 'pleasure' in regard to killing homosexuals, all I did was asking you, if the law was good, or in other words, would bannishing those dudes from the country have been a worse option... Or putting them into prison or something, I mean, like giving them opportunity for repentance, etc.The commentaries point out that this wasn't some base law that allowed any ol person to go around chopping off fingers or putting out eyes. How did you don't get that?
so where in the bible do you get the idea from that the law was abused, indeed...???
could you elaborate on this one, showing scripture...???Again, if taken out of context. The scripture itself says that "eye for an eye" was allowed "IF" mischief followed an accident. That wasn't the first course of action
sure thing....It was a fine law. Like the rest of God's law.
allright, so in what way does it differ from revenge? do you understand the word 'revenge' in this given context, as taking more than one eye for an eye?I said that the abuse of the law, i.e, using it as an excuse for revenge, was bad. The law in and of itself was just fine.
so these laws were no longer valid? anyway, could you provide scriptural evidence, again. and just btw, if they had lost their power, Christ could have reinstated their importance...Christ gave the law. And the vast majority of these laws lost their power when the people cried out for an earthly king. At that point, men started to rule over men.
No one ought to take pleasure in killing. God doesn't take pleasure in killing. Was it a good law though? Yes.
I dont know I tried this quote thing and it doesnt seem to work properly, could someonne please enlighten me how to make proper quotes...
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