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ralliann

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Thank you. I wish you could remember too, but being older myself I do truly understand.
I wonder how much of all this had to do with Rome giving power to the Sanhedrin to establish religious law among jew's. What was law from the religious leaders was also backed by Roman law. We may disagree with some of the decisions we find in the Talmud....an example is my other post concerning it being not lawful for Gentiles to keep the Sabbath....These things were very much also sanctioned under Roman rule among Jews and Judaism.
Whatever was Rabbinic law in the Sanhedrin was law to the Romans with regards to the religion of Jews. So would it really matter if mixed or not? Gentiles would behave as God fearers alike at any synagogue. This I think would be a protection of their apostolic leaders, as their disciples (proselytes).
Ac 25:8 While he answered for himself, Neither against the law of the Jews, neither against the temple, nor yet against Caesar, have I offended any thing at all.
 
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ralliann

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The problem here is...In the time these things were written, there was no freedom of religion. What was law from the Sanhedrin was to be obeyed, as Roman rule dictated among practitioners under "Judaism" in the empire. This is no small thing. We know that much later Christians were deemed (atheists) illegal and lost their exmption from idols as distinct from Judaism under roman law. That backdrop cannot be left out of these things. So while we may disagree with what was Sanhedrin law, it was law absolute for Judaism under Roman rule period.
 
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gadar perets

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I doubt the law we are discussing was made by the Sanhedrin. Reish Lakish most likely made his statements about Gentiles and Shabbat around 250 CE and Ravina most likely made his statements around 400 CE.
 
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ralliann

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I doubt the law we are discussing was made by the Sanhedrin. Reish Lakish most likely made his statements about Gentiles and Shabbat around 250 CE and Ravina most likely made his statements around 400 CE.
That is why I worded it the way I did. However , Reish was commenting on Sanhedrin law which was prior to him wasn't he?
Another thought...what would have been the difference between these two synagogues???
The only difference would have been God fearers not being proselytes unto circumcision. They would always remain Gentiles, and God fearers as Christians And therefore as Paul taught equal before God in Messiah. no difference whatever.
Lies on Paul were designed for persecution....legally by Roman law....
Ac 21:21 And they are informed of thee, that thou teachest all the Jews which are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children, neither to walk after the customs.
Ac 21:25 As touching the Gentiles which believe, we have written and concluded that they observe no such thing, save only that they keep themselves from things offered to idols, and from blood, and from strangled, and from fornication.

Mt 23:15 Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye compass sea and land to make one proselyte, and when he is made, ye make him twofold more the child of hell than yourselves.
 
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