A. This may bother some, but there is no direct scripture regarding tithing 10 percent of your income in the NT after Jesus' death on the cross. Payattention is quite right about that. The justification for it is almost always based on the OT passages, and the idea that we now have simply switched what we are supporting. While this may be a good means of encouraging regular giving, and there is nothing wrong with that, I do wonder if it is best to say it is a scriptural mandate at this time. That may be hard to prove. Now having said that, the Israelites if they actually followed all of the regulations gave quite a bit more than 10 percent. And Paul's encouragment is to give liberally in 2 Corinthians 8 and 9.
B. Some seem to see more than one actual tithe in the OT, one tied to the priesthood, and one to the feasts.
C. Yes, Paul kept the feasts, or at least showed up for some. There might be debate about how worried he was about them. Part of his reasoning for being at the feasts might have been because he know that many people would be gathered there...a built in witnessing opportunity. Of course, we could also say that was why it was his custom to go to the synagogue to reason with the Jews every Sabbath...But the point is, it is not precisely clear that he kept all of the temple regulations in every way. And it is clear that he did not endorse them for everyone. He argued against gentiles being circumcised or having to keep any of it. So the picture is clear in one regard--his feast keeping did not make it binding on all.
He also appeared to take what seems like a Nazarite vow, etc.
I will give more views on the feasts themselves later.
For now I want to look at what I think was happening in Colossians 2.
I agree that Christ did away with parts of the system of sacrifice, or perhaps better put, He removed the need for them, bieng the sacrifice. But I am not sure I agree with an interpretation of Colossians 2 that identifies the "handwriting of ordinances" as the ceremonial law.
I have felt for years that the church sells Jesus short in this passage. The "handwriting" is a reference to a statement of debt, a reference to a record of wrong. (For those interested, see my textual reasons for this at the end of the post)
Since Jesus was said by Paul to have "Become" sin for us, it is clear that in fact the handwriting is a reference to Jesus himself bearing our sin on the cross, paying the price for us. I mean, if we think about it...what was nailed to the cross? Jesus.
This is quite a bit more in line with the context of the passage.
COL 2:9 For in Christ all the fullness of the Deity lives in bodily form, 10 and you have been given fullness in Christ, who is the head over every power and authority. 11 In him you were also circumcised, in the putting off of the sinful nature, not with a circumcision done by the hands of men but with the circumcision done by Christ, 12 having been buried with him in baptism and raised with him through your faith in the power of God, who raised him from the dead.
COL 2:13 When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14 having canceled the written code, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us; he took it away, nailing it to the cross. 15 And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.
in Verse 11 it states that we were circumcised, putting off the sinful nature, and then in verse 12, we were buried with him through faith.
It is referring to the very essential points of the gospel Jesus died to cancel our sin, and we participated in this experience, dying and then living in new life. It echoes Romans 6. Then he goes on to elaborate on that resurrection. He says we were DEAD in our transgressions and sins. Ie, we were under a death sentance because of our record of sins against us. Now it says he cancelled the written code. This is that certificate of debt...the debt he paid with his life. in fact the phrase itself occurs within the context of the last part of verse 13...HE FORGAVE US ALL OUR SINS. Verse 14 continues the parallel thought..ie...how did he forgive us our sins? By paying them in the form of Jesus when He was nailed to the cross!
All one need do is look at what actually WAS nailed to the cross--Our SAVIOR!
Now I have trouble saying the ordinances are the ceremonial law...or those parts of the ceremonial law that dealt with sacrifices....first because of the textual evidence that it is a certificate of debt. But also,
how did that stand against us? It helped them to see Jesus.
For those who think it was the moral law...how did the moral law stand opposed to us? It was not the law that was the problem. It was our sin. Get rid of the sin and the law has no problem with us! And that is exactly what Jesus did. he paid the DEBT of our sin, freeing us from condemnation of the law.
In light of this, if we were to tranlsate the passage anew we might say...
COL 2:13 When you were dead in your sins and in the uncircumcision of your sinful nature, God made you alive with Christ. He forgave us all our sins, 14 having canceled the certificate of debt, with its regulations, that was against us and that stood opposed to us; he took it away, nailing it to the cross. 15 And having disarmed the powers and authorities, he made a public spectacle of them, triumphing over them by the cross.
Strangely enough the only Bible I have seen translate this correctly is the Jerusalem Bible...a Catholic Bible that , in the English version at least, is derived from a French tranlation of the text.
The only thing contextually that backs up the idea that it is the ceremonial law is the verses following directly on that passage.....
COL 2:16 Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17 These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ.
In other words, Paul goes on to apply the teaching of forgiveness. Since Christ fulfilled the laws demands, the ceremonial law was no longer the way to understand God, but focusing on Christ was.
So this is not opposed to the view that it was speaking of our debt of sin.
In fact, we must remember that Paul is here fighting against false teachers who are making much of the ceremonial law, but diminishing Christ. He begins the whole passage with a warning to cling to Christ but avoid empty philosophies which urge strict observance, but have no power.
COL 2:6 So then, just as you received Christ Jesus as Lord, continue to live in him, 7 rooted and built up in him, strengthened in the faith as you were taught, and overflowing with thankfulness.
COL 2:8 See to it that no one takes you captive through hollow and deceptive philosophy, which depends on human tradition and the basic principles of this world rather than on Christ.
Even the verses referencing the ceremonial law and the sabbath feast days etc. refer to this false system the teachers were trying to put in place...
COL 2:16 Therefore do not let anyone judge you by what you eat or drink, or with regard to a religious festival, a New Moon celebration or a Sabbath day. 17 These are a shadow of the things that were to come; the reality, however, is found in Christ. 18 Do not let anyone who delights in false humility and the worship of angels disqualify you for the prize. Such a person goes into great detail about what he has seen, and his unspiritual mind puffs him up with idle notions. 19 He has lost connection with the Head, from whom the whole body, supported and held together by its ligaments and sinews, grows as God causes it to grow.
In other words, the whole passage was an appeal to put Christ first..as in fact is the whole letter of Colossians. They were depeding on knowledge, and strict observance rather than on Christ.
This understanding of the passage is not the traditional one in Adventism. I am aware of that. But in fact it fits more with the text, and a few verses later you have a clear removal of the ceremonial law anyway. And on what basis? On the basis that the ceremonial law was the SHADOW, and Christ the REALITY. Which is the very thing this was showing. Christ was the perfect sacrifice, not REMOVING the law, but paying the debt that the law demanded. So the shadow pointing to all of that was no longer necessary.
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Textual note on the translation of χειρογραφον τοις δογμασιν
Strongs references of the term handwriting of ordinances...
χειρόγραφον
cheirographon
khi-rog'-raf-on
Neuter of a compound of G5495 and G1125; something hand written (chirograph), that is, a manuscript (specifically a legal document or bond (figuratively)): - handwriting.
Literally it is simply a combination of the word hand, cheir, and the verb write...grapho. It meant a handwritten form, legal document of bond. it is not apparently a reference to a concept of law, be it moral, ceremonial or otherwise, , but a literal legal document.
and the second word...
G1378
δόγμα
dogma
dog'-mah
From the base of G1380; a law (civil, ceremonial or ecclesiastical): - decree, ordinance.
Derived from dokeo, to think, imagine, etc.
Thayers defines dogma as decree, statute, ordinance.
So it is a legal form, perhaps of bond.
Even the commentators in the NIV Study Bible correctly translated the word in their notes--but then mystifyingly went on to say the exact opposite....
14. Written code. A business term, meaning a certificate of indebtedness in the debtor's handwritting. Paul uses it as a designation for the mosaic law, with all its regulations, under which everyone is a debtor to God.
Their textual work was fine, but then they bent it to fit their idea. It was referring to the debt, our sin, which was placed on Christ and nailed to the cross. Even in the case of debts the law is not changed that caused the debt to be owed, but rather the debt is PAID! .
