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Justification by Faith-Out Of Date

Do you believe in the imputation of Christ's Righteousness?

  • Yes

    Votes: 20 83.3%
  • No

    Votes: 4 16.7%

  • Total voters
    24

ladodgers6

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Justification by Faith — Out of Date?
Benjamin B. Warfield

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Sometimes we are told that Justification by Faith is "out of date." That would be a pity, if it were true. What it would mean would be that the way of salvation was closed and "no thoroughfare" nailed up over the barriers. There is no justification for sinful men except by faith. The works of a sinful man will, of course, be as sinful as he is, and nothing but condemnation can be built on them. Where can he get works upon which he can found his hope of justification, except from Another? His hope of Justification, remember — that is, of being pronounced righteous by God. Can God pronounce him righteous except on the ground of works that are righteous? Where can a sinful man get works that are righteous? Surely, not from himself; for, is he not a sinner, and all his works as sinful as he is? He must go out of himself, then, to find works which he can offer to God as righteous. And where will he find such works except in Christ? Or how will he make them his own except by faith in Christ?

Justification by Faith, we see, is not to be set in contradiction to justification by Works. It is set in contradiction only to justification by our Own Works. It is justification by Christ's Works. The whole question, accordingly, is whether we can hope to be received into God's favor on the ground of what we do ourselves, or only on the ground of what Christ does for us. If we expect to be received on the ground of what we do ourselves — that is what is called Justification by Works. If on the ground of what Christ has done for us — that is what is meant by Justification by Faith. Justification by Faith means, that is to say, that we look to Christ and to him alone for salvation, and come to God pleading Christ's death and righteousness as the ground of our hope to be received into his favor. If Justification by Faith is out of date, that means, then, that salvation by Christ is out of date. There is nothing, in that case, left to us but that each man must just do the best he can to save himself.

Justification by Faith does not mean, then, salvation by believing things instead of doing right. It means pleading the merits of Christ before the throne of grace instead of our own merits. It may be doing right to believe things, and doing right is certainly right. The trouble with pleading our own merits before God is not that merits of our own would not be acceptable to God. The trouble is that we haven't any merits of our own to plead before God. Adam, before his fall, had merits of his own, and because he had merits of his own he was, in his own person, acceptable to God. He didn't need Another to stand between him and God, whose merits he could plead. And, therefore, there was no talk of his being Justified by Faith. But we are not like Adam before the fall; we are sinners and have no merits of our own. If we are to be justified at all, it must be on the ground of the merits of Another, whose merits can be made ours by faith. And that is the reason why God sent His Only Begotten Son, that whosoever believeth on him should not perish but have everlasting life. If we do not believe in him, obviously we must perish. But if we believe in him, we shall not perish but have everlasting life. That is Justification by Faith. Justification by Faith is nothing other than obtaining everlasting life by believing in Christ. If Justification by Faith is out of date, then is salvation through Christ out of date. And as there is none other name under heaven, given among men, wherein we must be saved, if salvation through Christ is out of date then is salvation itself out of date. Surely, in a world of sinful men, needing salvation, this would be a great pity.
 

chevyontheriver

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it's in his last paragraph.;)
Actually, no. He provided his definition of 'justification' and of 'justification by faith' but not specifically of 'imputed righteousness'. It might be possible to infer his definition of 'imputed righteousness' but I'd rather have the OP provide a careful definition of his own. In the first paragraph he mentions 'being pronounced righteous by God', and I'm asking for more detail on what he thinks that means.
 
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OcifferPls

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"...to everyone who has, more will be given..."

"Abraham believed God and it was accounted to him for righteousness."

If faith is the "hypostasis" (Heb 11:1) of the righteousness of God (Gal 5:5, Rom 9:3), yes. I also believe in the impartation of the righteousness of faith.
 
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ladodgers6

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Actually, no. He provided his definition of 'justification' and of 'justification by faith' but not specifically of 'imputed righteousness'. It might be possible to infer his definition of 'imputed righteousness' but I'd rather have the OP provide a careful definition of his own. In the first paragraph he mentions 'being pronounced righteous by God', and I'm asking for more detail on what he thinks that means.

I am not ignoring you, just very busy. I will answer your question. I do not want to post a quick response, and miss something. please understand.
 
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chevyontheriver

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"...to everyone who has, more will be given..."

"Abraham believed God and it was accounted to him for righteousness."

If faith is the "hypostasis" (Heb 11:1) of the righteousness of God (Gal 5:5, Rom 9:3), yes. I also believe in the impartation of the righteousness of faith.
How does 'impartation' differ from or resemble 'imputation'?
 
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chevyontheriver

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I am not ignoring you, just very busy. I will answer your question. I do not want to post a quick response, and miss something. please understand.
Take your time. Depending on what you mean, I either agree with you or disagree. The term 'imputation' needs to be carefully understood and it seldom is.
 
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ladodgers6

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Take your time. Depending on what you mean, I either agree with you or disagree. The term 'imputation' needs to be carefully understood and it seldom is.
Thank you. But seeing that you are a Catholic and I am a convinced Calvinist I do not believe you will say yes, IMHO.
 
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chevyontheriver

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Thank you. But seeing that you are a Catholic and I am a convinced Calvinist I do not believe you will say yes, IMHO.
We'll see. Imputation is a Biblical concept but it's history in the last 500 years has been more contentious.
 
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OcifferPls

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How does 'impartation' differ from or resemble 'imputation'?

The word translated as "impart" or "give" is "didōmi." You can see its use in Ephesians 4:29 and Matthew 13:12, quoted earlier.
 
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chevyontheriver

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The word translated as "impart" or "give" is "didōmi." You can see its use in Ephesians 4:29 and Matthew 13:12, quoted earlier.
OK. But not an explanation of how you might compare or contrast 'imputation' and 'impartation'. Are you saying they are exactly the same thing?
 
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OcifferPls

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OK. But not an explanation of how you might compare or contrast 'imputation' and 'impartation'. Are you saying they are exactly the same thing?

No I'm saying one is meaningless without the other. The idea of "imputed" righteousness as I understand it, involves being accepted for "merit" we do not possess. That alone is relatively meaningless, unless it is certain that the required "merit" will be given. As I quoted earlier, "... to him who has, more will be given..." and "Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness," are relevant here.
 
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ladodgers6

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What do YOU mean by imputed righteousness?
What I mean by imputed righteousness? I will keep it simple, and answer your questions that you may have. The sinner is credited with the Righteousness of Christ in the Gospel's promise, and is receive by Faith Alone apart from works!
 
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chevyontheriver

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What I mean by imputed righteousness? I will keep it simple, and answer your questions that you may have. The sinner is credited with the Righteousness of Christ in the Gospel's promise, and is receive by Faith Alone apart from works!
I noticed you said that the righteousness of Christ is 'received'. On that I might agree, if that is what you intended.
 
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bling

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What I mean by imputed righteousness? I will keep it simple, and answer your questions that you may have. The sinner is credited with the Righteousness of Christ in the Gospel's promise, and is receive by Faith Alone apart from works!
What scripture are you using to support just that one concept?
 
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ladodgers6

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What scripture are you using to support just that one concept?
Romans chapter 4, I will start with the beginning verses first.

Abraham Justified by Faith

1What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, discovered in this matter? 2If, in fact, Abraham was justified by works, he had something to boast about—but not before God. 3What does Scripture say? “Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness.”

In the following verses Paul makes it clear HOW, it is credited to Abraham.


4Now to the one who works, wages are not credited as a gift but as an obligation. 5However, to the one who does not work but trusts God who justifies the ungodly, their faith is credited as righteousness. 6David says the same thing when he speaks of the blessedness of the one to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:

7“Blessed are those

whose transgressions are forgiven,

whose sins are covered.

8Blessed is the one

whose sin the Lord will never count against them.”

These paragraphs is what B.B. Warfield is highlighting in his article in my OP.
 
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ladodgers6

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I noticed you said that the righteousness of Christ is 'received'. On that I might agree, if that is what you intended.

Yes, the Righteousness of Christ, is what the Reformers called a 'Alien Righteousness' revealed apart from the Law! That is what the Reformation was all about; Christ's Righteousness/Christ Alone!. That's why I am surprised that you agree. I usually get a lot flack from others.
 
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yeshuaslavejeff

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Yes, the Righteousness of Christ, is what the Reformers called a 'Alien Righteousness' revealed apart from the Law! That is what the Reformation was all about; Christ's Righteousness/Christ Alone!. That's why I am surprised that you agree. I usually get a lot flack from others.
Amein !

A lot of word play ('spin') has taken place the last century or two
to remain unchanged but look good.
This is very evident especially in the last 20 or 30 years...

The whole purpose of the system in place around the world
is to have power over everyone, whether they are willing or not doesn't matter; nor whether they [doing it and oppressed by it also] live or die getting that power.
 
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hedrick

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How does 'impartation' differ from or resemble 'imputation'?
Impute is an accounting or legal term. It means that something is credited that isn’t actually there.

Paul says that faith is imputed as righteousness. I think what he actually meant is that God accepts our faith as righteousness, i.e. that faith puts us right with him.

The exegesis is complex, partly because the key terms have a range of meanings. First righteousness. Someone who is righteous is living as God wants, but that person is also in good standing with God. Righteousness is never seen as moral perfection. The righteous person is certainly committed to living a godly life, but they are often far from perfect. They do, however repent when they fail. At any rate, although righteousness can refer to living as God wants, in the context of Paul’s argument it probably refers to being in good standing with God.

(The reason I pick that meaning is that Paul is dealing with the question of whether circumcision defines people as part of the people of God. He argues that it’s faith, not circumcision. So the issue in this particular argument is really good standing as a member of God’s people more than the quality of life, though they clearly go together.)

Next we have an issue as to whether circumcision or faith makes you a member of God’s people or is a sign of being a member of God’s people. The two are very close together. I think at times Paul says that justification is a sign of being in good standing with God but at other times says that it puts one right with God. I wonder whether Paul even distinguished the two meanings. However theologians have argued loudly, with N T Wright maintaining that faith is a badge of being one of God’s people. I.e. when Paul says faith is imputed as righteousness he means that faith is the sign of being one of God’s people.

At any rate, it seems clear to me that what Paul is actually saying is that it is faith, not circumcision that defines one / makes one a member of God’s people. I.e. that faith is accepted by God (imputed as) being in the right status (righteous).

Now, in the 16th Cent righteousness seems to have been understood (I think by both sides) as referring to moral perfection. It seems to have been obvious to everyone that God demands moral perfection, since models of the atonement (again, I think on both sides) depended upon Christ being righteous when we can’t be.

Protestants read Paul correctly as saying that being in right standing with God was based on faith. They observed the use of the “imputed” term. Since only a perfect person can stand before God, and Christ was a perfect sacrifice for us, they understood that when faith is imputed as righteousness, what’s really going on is that Christ’s perfection (righteousness) is imputed as ours. It’s a reasonable gloss given the assumptions. But Paul never actually says that Christ’s righteousness is imputed as ours. What he actually says is that our faith is imputed as righteousness.
 
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