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In John 9 v 1-41 Jesus heals a man born blind. Despite this the unbelief of the religious establishment to the Divine presence at work in Jesus remains stubbornly in place.
There are a number of angles to take on this passage.
1) There is purpose of the miracle revealed in the analysis of the causes of the mans condition. When the disciples ask:
“Rabbi, who committed the sin that caused him to be born blind, this man or his parents?”
Jesus replies:
Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but he was born blind so that the acts of God may be
revealed through what happens to him. 9:4 We must perform the deeds of the one who sent me as long as it
is daytime. Night is coming when no one can work. 9:5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the
world.”
So its not that someone with an incurable condition is any worse than anyone else its so that the acts of God many be revealed through what happens to them. Nor is it an explanation of why people suffer. Jesus shows all of us that he can be the cure for their condition. In this miracle Jesus demonstrates that he is the light of the world and a man born blind gets to see. But what about the countless people Jesus did not heal and with whom his followers have prayed also. Why does God choose to restore the light to some but leave others in darkness. Why do some see the works Jesus does and others remain blind to them?
2) How can those who witnessed this miracle have been so blind to its implications and what it revealed about Jesus' true nature. Since they had witness to the longevity of the blind mans condition. The miracle of its cure should surely have transformed their perceptions of Jesus - instead their articulations reveal a deepening of the darkness in their lives.
3) The Pharisees case against Jesus could be summed up here by the argument. We do not care what power this man demonstrates in his miracles he cannot be of God because he appears to violate the Mosaic law by healing on the Sabbath. How would you answer that accusation against Christ. Are their examples of doctrinal inflexibility blinding people to new things that God is doing today.
4) Is there any significance that the final healing took place as the man washed in the pool of Siloam
What are your thoughts about this passage and how would you respond to the above questions?
There are a number of angles to take on this passage.
1) There is purpose of the miracle revealed in the analysis of the causes of the mans condition. When the disciples ask:
“Rabbi, who committed the sin that caused him to be born blind, this man or his parents?”
Jesus replies:
Neither this man nor his parents sinned, but he was born blind so that the acts of God may be
revealed through what happens to him. 9:4 We must perform the deeds of the one who sent me as long as it
is daytime. Night is coming when no one can work. 9:5 As long as I am in the world, I am the light of the
world.”
So its not that someone with an incurable condition is any worse than anyone else its so that the acts of God many be revealed through what happens to them. Nor is it an explanation of why people suffer. Jesus shows all of us that he can be the cure for their condition. In this miracle Jesus demonstrates that he is the light of the world and a man born blind gets to see. But what about the countless people Jesus did not heal and with whom his followers have prayed also. Why does God choose to restore the light to some but leave others in darkness. Why do some see the works Jesus does and others remain blind to them?
2) How can those who witnessed this miracle have been so blind to its implications and what it revealed about Jesus' true nature. Since they had witness to the longevity of the blind mans condition. The miracle of its cure should surely have transformed their perceptions of Jesus - instead their articulations reveal a deepening of the darkness in their lives.
3) The Pharisees case against Jesus could be summed up here by the argument. We do not care what power this man demonstrates in his miracles he cannot be of God because he appears to violate the Mosaic law by healing on the Sabbath. How would you answer that accusation against Christ. Are their examples of doctrinal inflexibility blinding people to new things that God is doing today.
4) Is there any significance that the final healing took place as the man washed in the pool of Siloam
What are your thoughts about this passage and how would you respond to the above questions?