John 3:16 (Can John please clear up Kosmou(s) for us?)

[Grip Docility]

John 3:16 For God so Loved the World, that He gave His Only Begotten Son, that Whosoever believes in Him, shall not Perish, but have eternal Life.

Do we have any assistance with the Greek word "Kosmon(s)" in this passage? If only the author of the book of John, John the Beloved and Revelator could answer the biggest theological question about this very passage that Martin Luther called (The Bible in Mini).

We indeed do have forensic verification from John. He ensured that there would be no Misunderstanding.

1 John 2:2 He Himself is the propitiation for our sins, and not only for ours, but also for those of the whole world.

Let's break this passage up into portions... without having to even dive into the Greek.

I. He Himself
II. IS the Propitiation
III. For our sins
IV. And not only For our Sins
V. but also for those of the world.

I. Identifies the Jesus of John 3:16
II. Specifies the Covering of Sin, Atonement, Propitiation
III. The Atonement (Blood) of Jesus is towards the Saved (Some call the saved the Elect)
IV. Now the Qualifying Statement about the Atonement of Jesus is (NOT ONLY) for (The Saved or as some say The Elect)
V. Qualifying statement (But Also) for those of the world. (The Damned, All Others, or as some would say The Reprobate)

I Origin of Qualifiers, II Result attached to the Qualifiers, III , Qualified to one group, IV Qualified in affirmation to, then apart from or outside of the same group cited in III and IV. V Qualified to identify all that are outside of Group III, becoming Group V

Blood for Group III and not only Group III, but Also Group V

 

[BBAS 64]

Good day, Grip

Yes Jesus did propitiate for every sin in the world, but not for every sinner.

If there where only 10 sins in the world... and one person had committed all ten of them then Jesus would have died for every sin in the world ( all ten of them).

Thayer Definition:
1) an appeasing, propitiating
2) the means of appeasing, a propitiation

God's just wrath is not appeased for every one Jesus does not mediate ( advocate) for every single person.

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

He died for many, he laid down his live for His sheep, he died for those who would believe he advocates for them... only.

There are some 12 ways the word Kosmos could be understood. I seem to think the use here is a little wider in it's description than you do.

I think it means every thing that was created, including the earth and everything in it.

He loves it all just not in the same way. The children he chooses to adopt are His and he has a special love for His own.

The Love of God can be a hard thing to grasp...

Da Carson did a fine work on the subject here: The Difficult Doctrine of the Love of God | Monergism

In Him,

Bill

 

[Grip Docility]

Good day, Grip

Yes Jesus did propitiate for every sin in the world, but not for every sinner.

Show one verse within the context of 10 versus that agrees with this, please.

If there where only 10 sins in the world... and one person had committed all ten of them then Jesus would have died for every sin in the world ( all ten of them).

Thayer Definition:
1) an appeasing, propitiating
2) the means of appeasing, a propitiation

I find the Hebrew meaning of COVERING and ATONING... which is spoken by Christ on the Cross. (Father it is Finished) PAID IN FULL.... more reliable than missing what ..... so.. the jig is up... I just defined propitiation. Also... Jesus said this to us.. Matthew 18:
21 Then Peter came to Him and said, “Lord, how many times could my brother sin against me and I forgive him? As many as seven times?”
22 “I tell you, not as many as seven,” Jesus said to him, “but 70 times seven.

If you do the math, you missed Jesus' point

God's just wrath is not appeased for every one Jesus does not mediate ( advocate) for every single person.

The Gospel does specify (Repentance Required)

My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.

Consider the exact verse that comes before this. 1 John 1:8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us.

Note that the exact verbiage of the text implies the persistence of Sin throughout our lives? Yet, how can we have sin... If Paul says this?
Romans 5:13 In fact, sin was in the world before the law, but sin is not charged to a person’s account when there is no law.

Wait, What!?! Ephesians 2:15 15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;

He died for many, he laid down his live for His sheep, he died for those who would believe he advocates for them... only.

Read Colossians 1:15-20.... if you study it and ensure that it is respected in exact meaning... you will see what Propitiation is and means.

There are some 12 ways the word Kosmos could be understood. I seem to think the use here is a little wider in it's description than you do.

There is only 1 way that it got Translated in all bibles. That Canon was settled by the blood of heretics. Take that idea to someone about to create a bible Translation, with over 100 lingual scholars available... then ask them why they don't implement the Doctrine of Election or Limited Atonement into it. You may not like the answer.

I think it means every thing that was created, including the earth and everything in it. He loves it all just not in the same way. The children he chooses to adopt are His and he has a special love for His own.

Ezekiel 33:11 suggests otherwise, imo. He's passionate about All of Creation.
11 Say to them, ‘As surely as I live, declares the Sovereign Lord, I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that they turn from their ways and live. Turn! Turn from your evil ways! Why will you die, people of Israel?’

The Love of God can be a hard thing to grasp...

Not really. He Loves more than any of us, and contrary to misunderstood scriptures toward Edom (A nation, not a person), He does not Hate. EVER.

Da Carson did a fine work on the subject here: The Difficult Doctrine of the Love of God | Monergism

Monergism says that God installed a (Can't come to Jesus Switch within Creations meant for Damnation and created for Damnation only)

Only using Scripture, In context and being prepared to see it Exegeted by me in response... 10 Verse minimum. Prove it with Scripture only.

In Him,

Bill

All Love to you, Sibling, in the name of Our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ.

 

[Guojing]

John 3:16 For God so Loved the World, that He gave His Only Begotten Son, that Whosoever believes in Him, shall not Perish, but have eternal Life.

I. Identifies the Jesus of John 3:16
II. Specifies the Covering of Sin, Atonement, Propitiation
III. The Atonement (Blood) of Jesus is towards the Saved (Some call the saved the Elect)
IV. Now the Qualifying Statement about the Atonement of Jesus is (NOT ONLY) for (The Saved or as some say The Elect)
V. Qualifying statement (But Also) for those of the world. (The Damned, All Others, or as some would say The Reprobate)

Firstly, John 3:16 is actually a commentary from the author, rather than the words of Christ himself.

Secondly, you should not try to insert Paul's revelation of the mystery into the book of John. The believe in John 3:16 is not believe in " The Atonement (Blood) of Jesus"

Rather, believe there should be seen, in context, with John 20:31, that is believing Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God.

 

[HIM]

1John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.


It is Conditional

 

[Brightfame52]

The world of Jn 3:16 is limited to all who believe, from all nationalities. Also it consiteth to all Jesus own People or Sheep Jn 13:1

Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.

Notice it doesnt say Having loved everyone in the world , but restricted to His Own

Jn 10:3


To him the porter openeth; and the sheep hear his voice: and he calleth his own sheep by name, and leadeth them out.

 

[Brightfame52]

1John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.


It is Conditional

Whats conditional ? Their sins have already been forgiven for Christs sake 1 Jn 2:12

12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.

 

[Guojing]

The world of Jn 3:16 is limited to all who believe, from all nationalities. Also it consiteth to all Jesus own People or Sheep Jn 13:1

How would you reconcile this with what Jesus said in Matthew 15:24?

 

[HIM]

Whats conditional ? Their sins have already been forgiven for Christs sake 1 Jn 2:12

12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.

Context. this is before that.
1John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

If we confess He will forgive is what the text states, So It is Conditional

 

[Danthemailman]

Notice that - "If we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (1 John 1:9) is in contrast to - If we say that we have no sin, (present tense) we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us (1 John 1:8) and - If we say that we have not sinned, (past tense) we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. (1 John 1:10)

Certain folks seem to misunderstand verse 9 to mean that we "must confess each and every sin that we commit as we commit them" (keep a specific inventory of every sin) as an "additional requirement" to "remain cleansed" and "if we forget a sin, we are toast!" Who could actually write an exhaustive list of every sin they have ever committed or ever will commit? Sin is not only missing the mark by what we do but also what we fail to do. (James 4:17)

Believers "confess" (Greek - homologeó) speak the same/acknowledge/agree with God's perspective about their sins and have a settled recognition and ongoing acknowledgment that one is a sinner in need of cleansing and forgiveness in contrast with saying that we have no sin or that we have not sinned. (1 John 1:8-10)

 

[Brightfame52]

How would you reconcile this with what Jesus said in Matthew 15:24?

Thats the world of the elect as well. In other words the world of Jn 3:16-17 and the Lost Sheep of the House of Israel Matt 15 24 are one and the same.

 

[Brightfame52]

Context. this is before that.
1John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.

If we confess He will forgive is what the text states, So It is Conditional

Your understanding is lacking, because,

Their sins have already been forgiven for Christs sake 1 Jn 2:12

12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.

Are forgiven here in the greek text is a perfect tense, a once and all completed work in the past with results standing in the present,

So unfortunately your understand is faulty. And the forgiveness is condition on His Names sake.

Isa 43 25

I, even I, am he that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and will not remember thy sins.

 

[HIM]

Notice that - "If we confess our sins, he is faithful and righteous to forgive us our sins, and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness" (1 John 1:9) is in contrast to - If we say that we have no sin, (present tense) we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us (1 John 1:8) and - If we say that we have not sinned, (past tense) we make him a liar, and his word is not in us. (1 John 1:10)

Certain folks seem to misunderstand verse 9 to mean that we "must confess each and every sin that we commit as we commit them" (keep a specific inventory of every sin) as an "additional requirement" to "remain cleansed" and "if we forget a sin, we are toast!" Who could actually write an exhaustive list of every sin they have ever committed or ever will commit? Sin is not only missing the mark by what we do but also what we fail to do. (James 4:17)

Believers "confess" (Greek - homologeó) speak the same/acknowledge/agree with God's perspective about their sins and have a settled recognition and ongoing acknowledgment that one is a sinner in need of cleansing and forgiveness in contrast with saying that we have no sin or that we have not sinned. (1 John 1:8-10)

If we confess is what the text says. Not what you say. To often we go by a thus saith I contrary to what God has said.

Your understanding is lacking, because,

Their sins have already been forgiven for Christs sake 1 Jn 2:12

12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.

Are forgiven here in the greek text is a perfect tense, a once and all completed work in the past with results standing in the present,

So unfortunately your understand is faulty. And the forgiveness is condition on His Names sake.

Isa 43 25

I, even I, am he that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and will not remember thy sins.

yes after you confess as 1Jo 1:9 says. The verse you are quoting is spoken with that in consideration. Take care

 

[Danthemailman]

If we confess is what the text says. Not what you say. To often we go by a thus saith I contrary to what God has said.

yes after you confess as 1Jo 1:9 says. The verse you are quoting is spoken with that in consideration. Take care

I read what the text said in context which was not contrary to what God has said.

 

[Brightfame52]

If we confess is what the text says. Not what you say. To often we go by a thus saith I contrary to what God has said.

yes after you confess as 1Jo 1:9 says. The verse you are quoting is spoken with that in consideration. Take care

Your understanding is lacking, because,

Their sins have already been forgiven for Christs sake 1 Jn 2:12

12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.

Are forgiven here in the greek text is a perfect tense, a once and all completed work in the past with results standing in the present,

So unfortunately your understand is faulty. And the forgiveness is condition on His Names sake.

Isa 43 25

I, even I, am he that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and will not remember thy sins.

 

[Guojing]

Thats the world of the elect as well. In other words the world of Jn 3:16-17 and the Lost Sheep of the House of Israel Matt 15 24 are one and the same.

You said all nationalities in John 3:16 but that contradicts Matthew 15:24.

 

[Brightfame52]

You said all nationalities in John 3:16 but that contradicts Matthew 15:24.

No it doesnt.

 

[HIM]

I read what the text said in context which was not contrary to what God has said.

If that was so then we would recognize, if we confess, He is faithful. If we do not assent, then our sin is not sent, therefore taken away.

 

[Guojing]

No it doesnt.

Care to explain? Hope you are reading the words literally.

 

[HIM]

Your understanding is lacking, because,

Their sins have already been forgiven for Christs sake 1 Jn 2:12

12 I write unto you, little children, because your sins are forgiven you for his name's sake.

Are forgiven here in the greek text is a perfect tense, a once and all completed work in the past with results standing in the present,

So unfortunately your understand is faulty. And the forgiveness is condition on His Names sake.

It is after you confess as 1Jo 1:9 says. The verse you are quoting is spoken with that in consideration. So first we must assent then we can partake of His faithfulness because of His name sake.

You speak of the Greek. Well then if you have any grip on that, then you know that they wrote in a linear fashion as we. So with that understood, understand that 1:9 is a prerequisite for 2:12.
Incidentally Forgive in 1:9 is second aorist active in the subjunctive mood. Which means it is an ongoing plausible action not a definite one. Couple that with the conditional particle "if" and we see without a doubt that the forgiveness of sin is subject to our assenting of our sin.

Isa 43 25

I, even I, am he that blotteth out thy transgressions for mine own sake, and will not remember thy sins.

Isaiah is filled with conditional clauses.. At this point you should be asking yourself why are you not seeing them. And please stop making comments about my understanding. You do not have a clue to what we understand. Nor should you say so.