[FONT="]Jesus clearly says that he came for ISRAEL and told his followers to not go among the GENTILES: how much more clear must these verses be? [/FONT]
[FONT="]You are not looking at the entirety of text. You are focusing on a narrow segment and not acknowledging the rest that counters your claim. As I mentioned previously, events A (going to Israel) and event B (going to all nations) are mutually exclusive events. There are plausible explanations for Jesus only mentioning event A first (Luke 24 explains) and not mentioning (B); but that does not exclude event B from happening. These two events would not be contradictory. The question that you should be pondering is that if Jesus only meant event A to happen, then why did He violate His own saying by going to minister to the Samaritans with His disciples [FONT="](John 4:1-42)? Additionally, why did He drive the demon out of the other Samaritans daughter and minister to her? There were other incidents where He ministered to Samaritans. Why didnt he refuse them if His ministry was only to the Israel? There is no scripture that criticizes these events as being against His decree.[/FONT][/FONT]
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[/FONT]Historical evidence from 1st century Palestine support Aramaic among the Jews: did you want me to show you?
[FONT="]Yes, you can show me; but I really don't want to speculate. If Jesus used Aramaic, do you have the passage in Aramaic? If not, it is a moot point.[/FONT]
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[/FONT]Strongs lexicon is one of the most bias sources.
[FONT="]You might want to use an online Greek lexicon that actually cross references the uses of ethnos with other Greek sources. [/FONT]
[FONT="]The main definition of ethnos is people living together, particular tribes, nation, and people.[/FONT]
[FONT="]Are we to conclude that only Israel was divided into tribes? All tribes would be all nations. This would not be specific to Israel.[/FONT]
[FONT="]We really don't need Strong's concordance to see that Jesus said to go beyond Israel, although the text states Jerusalem. It is neither logical nor rational to believe that Jesus' disciples went against His commands when they, along with Jesus, are reported ministering to non-Israelites. Add to this the fact that even the supposedly "ghost" of Jesus did not prevent them from their actions in Acts. Since you mentioned it, I will look at other concordances in the future. I think that Strong's should know what the context of the word is in relation to the Bible.[/FONT]
[/FONT][FONT="]Jerusalem is not Israel; so starting from Jerusalem does not automatically mean Israel: do you know the difference between Judah and the other tribes aka nations?
[FONT="]If I understand you point, all nations refers to all of the 12 tribes. As I previously pointed out, then Jesus would have been more correct to say to the rest of the lost house of Israel. If you allow for the historicity of the post-resurrected Jesus, then there is no problem with my position. If you simply dont look at the big picture, then you will be stuck in the loop of not seeing any peripherals. Studying this text requires that you subject yourself to the rest of the text to help to give you a more complete picture. If you see part of text (A) that seemingly contradicts another (B), then you have to try to resolve the two parts. There is ample text that you unfortunately reject due to your personal bias that would solve the problem for you. There are two mutually exclusive events at work.[/FONT]
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[/FONT]I am asking for historical evidence; if you do not understand the difference between historical evidence and mythos then we should stop now. A character speaking to people after his death is NOT HISTORICAL!
[FONT="]In this case, it is historical. Why? Because it is the same person that you accepted as historical before He died and resurrected. The text acknowledges that this person who is giving the directives is a supernatural being that is considered God, who is not bound by human limitations of death. From a purely textual POV, this characters historicity does not change as a result. Your disbelief of this does not impact that fact that the text testifies to this as being fact. It is your personal bias that is prohibiting you from testifying to what the text says. It is not the responsibility of a scholar or any other person of academia who is trying to understand a text to determine the validity of the text in order to comprehend what the text is actually saying. Whether the text is authentic is another issue. Your goal should be to testify to what is written. Its truthfulness can be contested in another thread.[/FONT]
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