The Meaning of αναμαρτητος
The "sinless one"
(B)   S. A. James' Interpretation (continued)
James leaves little doubt as to how he wants us to interpret Jesus' famous pronouncement:
The word "sinless one" αναμαρτητος ('anhamartetos') means exactly what it says, "sinless one" or "one without sin".
It is based plainly on the root-word αμαρτια ('hamartia'), - "sin", "wrongful deed", "crime", "offence", "trespass".
The verb form αμαρτανω ('hamartano') is also consistent and firm in its meaning: - "to sin", "to offend", "to trespass".
The root words are used in just this way consistently throughout the Greek Old Testament (the LXX) as well, not just the New Testament.
The REAL word James is seeking
The error of S. A. James is even more striking, when we note that there actually is a Greek word already available in the vocabulary of the New Testament that carries the meaning that James wants to insert here:
αμεμπτος ('amemptos'), derived from μεμφομαι ('memfomai', - "to find fault"), means - "without fault", "blameless", "worthy", "with clear reputation": Precisely what James had claimed that αναμαρτητος ('anhamartetos') meant.
This word is used in the NT in exactly the way we would expect, to refer to ordinary but Godly people in obediance to the Torah and of an upright heart. (see Luke 1:6, Phili. 2:15, 3:6, 1st Thess. 5:23 etc.).
O.T. Usage of αναμαρτητος ("Sinless One")
This rare variation of the word does seem to appear once in the Greek (LXX) translation of Deut. 29:19-20, in the context of the curse for disobedience to the Covenant:
What the Pharisees Meant by αμαρτια ("sin")
"Sin" is precisely the meaning in John 9:34:The complimentary word αμαρτωλος ('hamartolos') - "sinner" (of opposite meaning) is also consistently used in John's Gospel to refer to sin, i.e., the fact of guiltiness and culpability:
Clearly the Pharisees as well as Jesus and the blind man are focussed on the question of SIN, even if the 'context' and standard for testing is the Law of Moses and/or the Israelite Covenant.
What Jesus Meant by αμαρτια ("sin")
Similarly, in the discussion immediately following the incident, Jesus plainly turns the focus away from 'legal status' (e.g. Abraham's descendants) to the question of SIN and personal culpability, using the very same vocabulary:
Yet the idea actually does appear in slightly different wording elsewhere in the NT:
And the only person who qualifies as "without sin" using this vocabulary is Jesus the Christ. The NT writers are careful to reserve this status, not for mere honest men, holy men, or obedient God-fearers, but only for Jesus Himself.
The conclusion is inescapable that Jesus has here in John 8:7 said something extraordinary, and has obliquely referred to Himself!
peace,
Nazaroo
The "sinless one"
(B)   S. A. James' Interpretation (continued)
James leaves little doubt as to how he wants us to interpret Jesus' famous pronouncement:
'The actual and basic meaning of the word αναμαρτητος is "without fault". ...
"without sin" goes beyond the original intent of the word, which is basically secular. 15
In effect, Jesus is asking the witnesses if they are truly eligible before the law to testify. ...
It is unfortunate that the term is translated "without sin"... It would have been better translated, in context, as "competent to testify".
________________________________________________
15. TDNT, s.v. "anamartetos". [i.e. Theological Dictionary of the NT, entry: "anamartetos"]
- S. A. James, p.48
Once again however, his claim is nonsense, and his authority is dubious. "without sin" goes beyond the original intent of the word, which is basically secular. 15
In effect, Jesus is asking the witnesses if they are truly eligible before the law to testify. ...
It is unfortunate that the term is translated "without sin"... It would have been better translated, in context, as "competent to testify".
________________________________________________
15. TDNT, s.v. "anamartetos". [i.e. Theological Dictionary of the NT, entry: "anamartetos"]
- S. A. James, p.48
The word "sinless one" αναμαρτητος ('anhamartetos') means exactly what it says, "sinless one" or "one without sin".
It is based plainly on the root-word αμαρτια ('hamartia'), - "sin", "wrongful deed", "crime", "offence", "trespass".
The verb form αμαρτανω ('hamartano') is also consistent and firm in its meaning: - "to sin", "to offend", "to trespass".
The root words are used in just this way consistently throughout the Greek Old Testament (the LXX) as well, not just the New Testament.
The REAL word James is seeking
The error of S. A. James is even more striking, when we note that there actually is a Greek word already available in the vocabulary of the New Testament that carries the meaning that James wants to insert here:
αμεμπτος ('amemptos'), derived from μεμφομαι ('memfomai', - "to find fault"), means - "without fault", "blameless", "worthy", "with clear reputation": Precisely what James had claimed that αναμαρτητος ('anhamartetos') meant.
This word is used in the NT in exactly the way we would expect, to refer to ordinary but Godly people in obediance to the Torah and of an upright heart. (see Luke 1:6, Phili. 2:15, 3:6, 1st Thess. 5:23 etc.).
O.T. Usage of αναμαρτητος ("Sinless One")
This rare variation of the word does seem to appear once in the Greek (LXX) translation of Deut. 29:19-20, in the context of the curse for disobedience to the Covenant:
'And it shall be that if one of you were to hear the words of this oath,
and should imagine in his heart, saying,
  "Blessings to me will happen,
though following my own (wayward) heart I will go.",
in order that they should not be destroyed together,
the sinner, (ο αμαρτωλος) with the sinless (τον αναμαρτητον),
[The Heb. has here: "...to prevent disaster on the watered lands as well as the desert"]
in no way does God wish to forgive him,
but then the anger of the LORD shall burn,
and His zeal will fall upon that man (only);
and all the curses of this Covenant will cleave to him,
those written in this Scroll of the Law;
and the LORD shall blot out his name from under heaven.'
(Deut. 29:19, LXX)
Here in this one passage the context does suggest 'guiltless' in the humanly possible sense, that is, it speaks of a hypothetical innocent bystander, who is to be protected from the wrath to fall upon the Covenant breaker. Yet even here, the plain topic and sense is sin and actual guilt, not 'fitness to testify' or merely fulfilling legal requirements to qualify for status in the community. and should imagine in his heart, saying,
  "Blessings to me will happen,
though following my own (wayward) heart I will go.",
in order that they should not be destroyed together,
the sinner, (ο αμαρτωλος) with the sinless (τον αναμαρτητον),
[The Heb. has here: "...to prevent disaster on the watered lands as well as the desert"]
in no way does God wish to forgive him,
but then the anger of the LORD shall burn,
and His zeal will fall upon that man (only);
and all the curses of this Covenant will cleave to him,
those written in this Scroll of the Law;
and the LORD shall blot out his name from under heaven.'
(Deut. 29:19, LXX)
What the Pharisees Meant by αμαρτια ("sin")
"Sin" is precisely the meaning in John 9:34:
"In sins you were wholly born, and you (dare to) teach us?!?"
εν αμαρτιαις συ εγεννηθης ολος, και συ διδασκεις ημας ?!?
(Jn 9:34)
εν αμαρτιαις συ εγεννηθης ολος, και συ διδασκεις ημας ?!?
(Jn 9:34)
"We know that this man is a sinner!"
ημεις οιδαμεν οτι ο ανθρωπος ουτος αμαρτωλος εστιν!
(Jn 9:24,25 etc.)
These heated arguments (e.g. Jn 9:13-34) are not mere debates about suitability as a witness or status as a responsible member of the Jewish community. ημεις οιδαμεν οτι ο ανθρωπος ουτος αμαρτωλος εστιν!
(Jn 9:24,25 etc.)
Clearly the Pharisees as well as Jesus and the blind man are focussed on the question of SIN, even if the 'context' and standard for testing is the Law of Moses and/or the Israelite Covenant.
What Jesus Meant by αμαρτια ("sin")
Similarly, in the discussion immediately following the incident, Jesus plainly turns the focus away from 'legal status' (e.g. Abraham's descendants) to the question of SIN and personal culpability, using the very same vocabulary:
"We are the seed of Abraham and have never been slaves to anyone. How do you mean 'You will become free.'... ?"
Jesus answered them:
"Amen amen I say to you,
Everyone doing sin (ποιων την αμαρτιαν) is a slave to sin (αμαρτιας).
(Jn 8:33-34 etc.)
In the Gospel of John, the focus is on SIN throughout, starting from the very first page and the testimony of John the Baptist (Jn 1:29), and the vocabulary too is equally consistent:Jesus answered them:
"Amen amen I say to you,
Everyone doing sin (ποιων την αμαρτιαν) is a slave to sin (αμαρτιας).
(Jn 8:33-34 etc.)
"Behold the Lamb of God, Who takes away the SINS (αμαρτιαν) of the world!"
(Jn 1:29)
That Jesus in John 8:7 means something entirely different (from James' idea) and quite extraordinary is shown by the fact that this exact word, αναμαρτητος ('anhamartetos') only appears this ONCE in the entire New Testament (it is NT hapax legomenon). Nowhere else is there an αναμαρτητος, a "sinless one" or "one without sin" to be found in the entire Bible, especially with the meaning of merely an 'honest man' or 'competant to testify'. (Jn 1:29)
Yet the idea actually does appear in slightly different wording elsewhere in the NT:
'And you know that this One [Jesus] appeared so that our sins He might remove; and in Him there is no sin.
(και αμαρτια εν αυτω ουκ εστιν).
'For we do not have a High Priest [Jesus] unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but rather One having been tested in all similar respects, yet without sin (χωρις αμαρτιας).
(1st Jn 3:5, Heb. 4:15)
Again the usage of the vocabulary indicates the topic is real sin and guilt, not legal status or suitability for any office participating in carrying out law enforcement. The concern and focus of the NT writers is consistently on real sin, not legality or appearances. (και αμαρτια εν αυτω ουκ εστιν).
'For we do not have a High Priest [Jesus] unable to sympathize with our weaknesses, but rather One having been tested in all similar respects, yet without sin (χωρις αμαρτιας).
(1st Jn 3:5, Heb. 4:15)
And the only person who qualifies as "without sin" using this vocabulary is Jesus the Christ. The NT writers are careful to reserve this status, not for mere honest men, holy men, or obedient God-fearers, but only for Jesus Himself.
The conclusion is inescapable that Jesus has here in John 8:7 said something extraordinary, and has obliquely referred to Himself!
peace,
Nazaroo
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