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James 1:27

gadar perets

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James 1:27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.​

James offers two things that characterize "pure religion".

A few questions;

1) Do you believe there is more to it than that? If so, what more constitutes "pure religion"?

2) What are some things in the world that can blemish us?
 

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James 1:27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.​

James offers two things that characterize "pure religion".

A few questions;

1) Do you believe there is more to it than that? If so, what more constitutes "pure religion"?

2) What are some things in the world that can blemish us?

I'll take on number 1

James seems to be saying that pure religion is both proactive (i.e spreading God's love into the world) ... and resistant to the evil in the world.
 
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gadar perets

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I'll take on number 1

James seems to be saying that pure religion is both proactive (i.e spreading God's love into the world) ... and resistant to the evil in the world.
True, but is there more? For example, does pure religion require faith? I would say yes. That would lead to other questions like "faith in who/what?", etc. Would you agree? If so, what more is involved in pure religion?
 
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HARK!

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James 1:27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.​

James offers two things that characterize "pure religion".

A few questions;

1) Do you believe there is more to it than that? If so, what more constitutes "pure religion"?

2) What are some things in the world that can blemish us?

1) The Greek doesn't say "pure religion."

Here's what the CLV says:

(CLV) Ja 1:27
for ritual clean and undefiled with God the Father is this: to be visiting the bereaved and widowed in their affliction, to be keeping oneself unspotted from the world.

I don't know if I should trust the order of the words in this translation either.

In the Greek the order is ritual FOR clean.

What is the ritual for clean, mikveh?

2) It doesn't say "in" the world. It says "from" the world. The difference between the words of and from is negligible. I believe that keeping oneself unspotted from the world, is not being of this world. As this world spots us, we separate ourselves from it. We need Yahshua to wash our feet even after we mikveh. Otherwise we might slide off the path; as the slime tries to overtake the path; as we follow in his footsteps.
 
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Hidden In Him

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1) The Greek doesn't say "pure religion."

Here's what the CLV says:

(CLV) Ja 1:27
for ritual clean and undefiled with God the Father is this: to be visiting the bereaved and widowed in their affliction, to be keeping oneself unspotted from the world.

θρησκεία in James 1:27 could conceivably be translated "ritual," but it wouldn't really fit the overall context of the passage well. It would have to be translated the same way in v.26, where no specific ritual is being discussed. Moreover θρησκὸς in the same verse would have to be translated "ritualistic," which would then have James defending ritualism, and this would seem not only out of context but very out of place for New Testament teaching and practice in general.
1) Do you believe there is more to it than that? If so, what more constitutes "pure religion"?

2) What are some things in the world that can blemish us?

In context, I don't think James was trying to nutshell Christianity so much as to simply redirect his readers away from what they were doing to what they should be instead, i.e. "if your religious observance would be spiritually clean and undefiled, stop giving yourselves to strife and start devoting your hearts instead to caring for the poor."
 
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θρησκεία in James 1:27 could conceivably be translated "ritual," but it wouldn't really fit the overall context of the passage well. It would have to be translated the same way in v.26, where no specific ritual is being discussed. Moreover θρησκὸς in the same verse would have to be translated "ritualistic," which would then have James defending ritualism, and this would seem not only out of context but very out of place for New Testament teaching and practice in general.

Let's assume for a moment that this ritual is a mikveh, as we examine v.26 in that context.

(CLV) Ja 1:26
If anyone is seeming to be a ritualist, not bridling his tongue, but seducing his heart, the ritual of this one is vain,

If anyone is seeming to be a ritualist,

If anyone is seeming to be mikvehed (outwardly, but not inwardly)

not bridling his tongue,

speaking evil

but seducing his heart

following his lusts

the ritual of this one is vain

his outward mikveh is of no value

It all seems to fit for me.
 
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Hidden In Him

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Let's assume for a moment that this ritual is a mikveh, as we examine v.26 in that context.

(CLV) Ja 1:26
If anyone is seeming to be a ritualist, not bridling his tongue, but seducing his heart, the ritual of this one is vain,

If anyone is seeming to be a ritualist,

If anyone is seeming to be mikvehed (outwardly, but not inwardly)

not bridling his tongue,

speaking evil

but seducing his heart

following his lusts

the ritual of this one is vain

his outward mikveh is of no value

It all seems to fit for me.

I understand what you are saying. Only a cleansing just doesn't fit the wider context for me. To accept that reading is to sort of insert a treatment on cleansing into the letter when anything related to a mikveh is never dealt with before or after...

It's an interesting reading, but I just don't see connections with the rest of the letter.
 
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Heber Book List

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James 1:27 Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.​

James offers two things that characterize "pure religion".

A few questions;

1) Do you believe there is more to it than that? If so, what more constitutes "pure religion"?

2) What are some things in the world that can blemish us?

It is simply about a balance in your life - neither obeying the Law, at the expense of justice, faith and mercy, nor diligently doing those three at the expense of the Law. In other words, Law, justice, faith and mercy, in equal measure in your life, is 'pure religion'.

It is the timeless debate about works vs Law. Basically, James says studying the Law is fine, but I will show you that works emanating from the study of G_d's Law is better. Salvation is not by the Law, alone, and neither is salvation by works alone.

Law (G_d's teachings) and Faith (by which works are done), working together in our lives, is what G_d requires of us.
 
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gadar perets

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1) The Greek doesn't say "pure religion."

Here's what the CLV says:

(CLV) Ja 1:27
for ritual clean and undefiled with God the Father is this: to be visiting the bereaved and widowed in their affliction, to be keeping oneself unspotted from the world.

I don't know if I should trust the order of the words in this translation either.

In the Greek the order is ritual FOR clean.

What is the ritual for clean, mikveh?
I don't see the word "for" in there. "Ritual" is one definition of θρησκεία, but so is "religious worship, cult, religion, service of God, religious formalism". I think the word "religion" is appropriate although it more directly means "religious worship" in this context. In Colossians 2:18, the word was used for "worshiping angels".

2) It doesn't say "in" the world. It says "from" the world.
I considered that before posting. It uses "from" because it is referring to being "unspotted". We can be "unspotted" as long as we stay away "from" the things of this world, but I asked what is "in the world" that can blemish us. There are things "in" this world that we must stay away "from". So my question is, what are some of those things?
 
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gadar perets

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In context, I don't think James was trying to nutshell Christianity so much as to simply redirect his readers away from what they were doing to what they should be instead, i.e. "if your religious observance would be spiritually clean and undefiled, stop giving yourselves to strife and start devoting your hearts instead to caring for the poor."
I agree, but what were they doing wrong that they needed to be redirected away from and, more importantly, what are we doing wrong today that we need to be redirected away from? It seems to me that James was referring to things that were contrary to "the word" of verse 23 in which was found the "perfect law of liberty" of verse 25. "The word" back then was the Old Testament which contained things that believers should be "doers" of. Therefore, in order to have a pure worship, we must be doers of those things found in the OT which will keep us from being spotted by this world.
 
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Hidden In Him

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I agree, but what were they doing wrong that they needed to be redirected away from and, more importantly, what are we doing wrong today that we need to be redirected away from? It seems to me that James was referring to things that were contrary to "the word" of verse 23 in which was found the "perfect law of liberty" of verse 25. "The word" back then was the Old Testament which contained things that believers should be "doers" of. Therefore, in order to have a pure worship, we must be doers of those things found in the OT which will keep us from being spotted by this world.

Well, I take the perfect law of liberty to be "love your neighbor as yourself," as described in Galatians 5:14. So it was indeed part of Old Testament law as you stated. But as for question about what can cause us to become "spotted/blemished," I take it to mean spiritual uncleanness rather than ceremonial. James refers to what makes a man spiritually unclean earlier in the Chapter when he talks about the wrath of man inviting a type of spiritual, i.e. demonic "filthiness" (James 1:19-21). He's still discussing the same thing when he then urges that being a practitioner of the perfect law of liberty will keep a man from giving himself over to anger/ wrath, lest he NOT keep the second greatest commandment towards his brother, and also open up the door for spiritual uncleanness in the process.

But that's a heavily spiritualized interpretation. You may be looking for a somewhat more practical application than that.
 
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gadar perets

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Well, I take the perfect law of liberty to be "love your neighbor as yourself," as described in Galatians 5:14. So it was indeed part of Old Testament law as you stated.
James calls "love your neighbor as yourself" the "royal law" (James 2:8). I don't think the royal law is the perfect law of liberty, but I do believe it is part of that perfect law.

What, then, is the perfect law of liberty? First, Psalm 19 says the Law of YHWH is perfect. It is a perfect law. Secondly, James 2:8-12 tells us what the perfect law of liberty is.

“If you fulfill the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself, you do well: But if you have respect to persons, you commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors. For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if you commit no adultery, yet if you kill, you are become a transgressor of the law. So speak you, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.”​

The law of verses 8-11 is the Old Covenant law. In verse 8, James is quoting the second greatest commandment which is actually an Old Covenant commandment found in Leviticus 19:18. In verse 9, the law he is referring to is the Old Covenant law. Verse 10 is often used by those opposed to obeying the Old Covenant laws. They say, “if you break one law you’ve broken them all, so why even try to keep the law?” So verse 10 is also speaking of the Old Covenant law. Of course, verse 11 is quoting two of the Ten Commandments which are also Old Covenant laws. In verse 12, James is saying that people are going to be judged by that same law. So, in order to receive a good judgment, speak and do according to those laws.

Paul said the same thing in Romans 2:12,13, “For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law; For not the hearers of the law are just before God, but the doers of the law shall be justified.” Not that the law justifies us. We are justified by grace through faith. However, a saving faith (part of pure religious worship) will be evidenced by good works, among which include obedience to the law.

Why does James call the Old Covenant law “the law of liberty”? Well, there are two reasons. The first has to do with obedience. When the law is lawfully used, when it is obeyed through the motivation of love without seeking to be justified or saved by it, we walk at liberty.

Let’s look at Galatians 5:13-16;

“For, brethren, you have been called unto liberty; only use not liberty for an occasion to the flesh, but by love serve one another. For all the law is fulfilled in one word, even in this; Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself. But if you bite and devour one another, take heed that you be not consumed one of another. This I say then, Walk in the Spirit, and you shall not fulfill the lust of the flesh.”​

Paul then goes on to list the works of the flesh in vss. 19-21, all of which are transgressions against Old Covenant law. However, if we obey the law through the Spirit and through love, the law cannot put us in bondage. If we walk in the Spirit as the Spirit leads us to obey the law (Ezekiel 36:26-27), we walk in freedom and liberty.

Now, if we transgress the law and sin, the second reason why the Old Covenant law is the perfect law of liberty comes into play. It has to do with what Paul said to the Galatians in 3:24, “Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Messiah, that we might be justified by faith.”

In other words, one of the functions of the law was to lead us to Messiah in order to be liberated from sin. Our disobedience to the law drives us to Messiah and to freedom and liberty from sin through him. We were once imprisoned on death row because of our transgressions against the law. But now, the law has led us to Messiah and liberty. Once we are free from sin, Messiah then drives us back to obedience to the law through faith. We become doers of the word, or as Paul says, “doers of the law”, and not hearers only.

How do we know Yeshua is driving us back to obedience to the law through faith? Romans 3: 30,31 says;

“Seeing it is one God which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith, do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.”​

Why is the law being firmly established? Because Messiah is driving us back to obedience to it.
 
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gadar perets

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Well, I take the perfect law of liberty to be "love your neighbor as yourself," as described in Galatians 5:14. So it was indeed part of Old Testament law as you stated. But as for question about what can cause us to become "spotted/blemished," I take it to mean spiritual uncleanness rather than ceremonial. James refers to what makes a man spiritually unclean earlier in the Chapter when he talks about the wrath of man inviting a type of spiritual, i.e. demonic "filthiness" (James 1:19-21). He's still discussing the same thing when he then urges that being a practitioner of the perfect law of liberty will keep a man from giving himself over to anger/ wrath, lest he NOT keep the second greatest commandment towards his brother, and also open up the door for spiritual uncleanness in the process.

But that's a heavily spiritualized interpretation. You may be looking for a somewhat more practical application than that.
I agree it is spiritual uncleanness. It is a result of sin (breaking the law - 1 John 3:4). However, there is also ceremonial uncleanness such as touching a dead body or a woman during her cycle).

I don't think the "filthiness" mentioned in James 1:21 is "demonic filthiness". It can be physical as well as spiritual.
 
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Hidden In Him

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What, then, is the perfect law of liberty? First, Psalm 19 says the Law of YHWH is perfect. It is a perfect law. Secondly, James 2:8-12 tells us what the perfect law of liberty is.

“If you fulfill the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbor as thyself, you do well: But if you have respect to persons, you commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors. For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all. For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if you commit no adultery, yet if you kill, you are become a transgressor of the law. So speak you, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.”

I think your transposing the entire law into the above passage when the second greatest commandment alone is what's in view here. He's saying showing respect of persons is breaking the royal law, and that attempting to focus on keeping Jewish law in many other respects but failing to concentrate on the second greatest commandment will lead to ultimately breaking the law somewhere in how we treat our brothers. So he simply reaffirms in verse 12 that they need to focus primarily on keeping the second greatest commandment, "the perfect law of liberty," for by keeping this one law they will keep all of it.

But as they say, to each his own. I appreciate you sharing your viewpoint.
 
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AbbaLove

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It is simply about a balance in your life - neither obeying the Law, at the expense of justice, faith and mercy, nor diligently doing those three at the expense of the Law. In other words, Law, justice, faith and mercy, in equal measure in your life, is 'pure religion'.
Wasn't that the objective ('pure religion') of the Mosaic Covenant (Torah)? So, why did the Israelites go astray? Afterall they were God's chosen people.

But you are a chosen people, the King’s cohanim, a holy nation, a people for God to possess! Why? In order for you to declare the praises of the One who called you out of darkness into His wonderful light. 1 Peter 2:9

What if God had poured out from His Spirit upon His chosen people after they entered the Promised Land. So, if instead the Israelites experienced being "born again" with the baptism of the Holy Spirit, according to the New Covenant (John 3:3-8), then the diaspora may never have occurred and Solomon's Temple might still be standing in Jerusalem today. Apparently that wasn't God's plan.

You have been born again not from some seed that will decay, but from One
that cannot decay, through the living Word of God that lasts forever.
1 Peter 1:23​

Isn't James (as well as Peter) assuming that the followers of Yeshua, to whom he is writing, have been "born again" with the abiding presence of Ruach HaKodesh (the Holy Spirit) that enables them to live a life according to the two most important commandments ('pure religion') as written in Deuteronomy 6:5, Leviticus 19:18 and Matthew 22:37-40.

"All of the Torah and the Prophets are dependent on these two mitzvot.” Matt. 22:40
Acts 2:17-21 (CJB)
17 ‘Adonai says: “In the Last Days, I will pour out from My Spirit upon everyone. Your sons and daughters will prophesy, your young men will see visions, your old men will dream dreams.
18 Even on my slaves, both men and women, will I pour out from my Spirit in those days; and they will prophesy.
19 I will perform miracles in the sky above and signs on the earth below — blood, fire and thick smoke.
20 The sun will become dark and the moon blood before the great and fearful Day of
Adonai comes.
21 And then, whoever calls on the name of Adonai will be saved.”’

When James is describing his view of a 'pure religion' is he basing it on man's good intentions. Is a pure heart and 'pure religion' possible without the abiding influence of the Holy Spirit.

 
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Heber Book List

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Wasn't that the objective ('pure religion') of the Mosaic Covenant (Torah)? So, why did the Israelites go astray? Afterall they were God's chosen people.

But you are a chosen people, the King’s cohanim, a holy nation, a people for God to possess! Why? In order for you to declare the praises of the One who called you out of darkness into His wonderful light. 1 Peter 2:9

What if God had poured out from His Spirit upon His chosen people after they entered the Promised Land. So, if instead the Israelites experienced being "born again" with the baptism of the Holy Spirit, according to the New Covenant (John 3:3-8), then the diaspora may never have occurred and Solomon's Temple might still be standing in Jerusalem today. Apparently that wasn't God's plan.

You have been born again not from some seed that will decay, but from One
that cannot decay, through the living Word of God that lasts forever.
1 Peter 1:23​

Isn't James (as well as Peter) assuming that the followers of Yeshua, to whom he is writing, have been "born again" with the abiding presence of Ruach HaKodesh (the Holy Spirit) that enables them to live a life according to the two most important commandments ('pure religion') as written in Deuteronomy 6:5, Leviticus 19:18 and Matthew 22:37-40.

"All of the Torah and the Prophets are dependent on these two mitzvot.” Matt. 22:40
Acts 2:17-21 (CJB)
17 ‘Adonai says: “In the Last Days, I will pour out from My Spirit upon everyone. Your sons and daughters will prophesy, your young men will see visions, your old men will dream dreams.
18 Even on my slaves, both men and women, will I pour out from my Spirit in those days; and they will prophesy.
19 I will perform miracles in the sky above and signs on the earth below — blood, fire and thick smoke.
20 The sun will become dark and the moon blood before the great and fearful Day of
Adonai comes.
21 And then, whoever calls on the name of Adonai will be saved.”’

When James is describing his view of a 'pure religion' is he basing it on man's good intentions. Is a pure heart and 'pure religion' possible without the abiding influence of the Holy Spirit.


I have looked for question marks in what you appear to be asking, but there are none. Were you expecting me to comment on your comments? :)
 
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AbbaLove

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I have looked for question marks in what you appear to be asking, but there are none.
The quote of mine you posted above (#18) has a ? mark. ;)
Were you expecting me to comment on your comments? :)
Not necessary ... just something to think on for us with inquisitive minds.

Job 42:1-3, 6
1 Then Job replied to the Lord:
2 I know that you can do all things; no purpose of yours can be thwarted.
3 You asked, ‘Who is this that obscures my plans without knowledge?’ Surely I spoke of things I did not understand, things too wonderful for me to know.
6 Therefore I despise myself and repent in dust and ashes.”​
 
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gadar perets

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I think your transposing the entire law into the above passage when the second greatest commandment alone is what's in view here. He's saying showing respect of persons is breaking the royal law, and that attempting to focus on keeping Jewish law in many other respects but failing to concentrate on the second greatest commandment will lead to ultimately breaking the law somewhere in how we treat our brothers. So he simply reaffirms in verse 12 that they need to focus primarily on keeping the second greatest commandment, "the perfect law of liberty," for by keeping this one law they will keep all of it.
I totally disagree with the statements I underlined. The first underlined statement is not found anywhere in James. James is saying we need to concentrate on the second greatest commandment IF we are relating with people. He says nothing about the greatest commandment which is far more important. We can treat others the way the second greatest command requires, but still break the greatest commandment and vice versa. Our obedience to both commands are required. When we keep the last six of the Ten Words, we are showing love for our neighbors. When we keep the first four, we are showing love for YHWH. If we steal from our neighbor or bear false witness against him, our love for him is lacking (it is not what it should be in that area). If we break the Sabbath or worship graven images, our love for YHWH is lacking. If we move our neighbors boundary marker, our love for him is lacking. If we break any command found in Torah, our love for YHWH is lacking. Our faith should produce the good works of obedience to Torah.
 
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