Hey Splayd, sorry for the delay in my response.
Of course it's true. ALL scripture is given by inspiration of God. At the time of writing that basically just meant the OT, but we both agree that it necessarily includes subsequent scripture.
Well, no, the content of the N.T. scriptures were being transmitted both verbally and in letters during the first century. The reason for spiritual gifts was for the transmission of the New Covenant. Yes, the word Scripture (graph[FONT=Times New Roman, serif]ē[/FONT]) primarily means something written, but scripture came about as a result of inspiration, oral transmission and writing. You admit that "
we both agree that it necessarily includes subsequent scripture", so I really don't see your point. Do you believe we have the completed NT?
What's more interesting it that some would determine that it REALLY means everything BUT what was considered scripture by the writer.
It seems that you are assuming that (1) there were no NT scriptures existing at that time, (2) that the author only regarded OT as scripture, (3) that I do not regard the OT as scripture. All of these assumptions are incorrect.
2 Peter 3:16
"as also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things, in which are some things hard to understand, which untaught and unstable people twist to their own destruction, as they do also the rest of the Scriptures."
The wording of the previous verse indicates that Paul (who is the subject of this verse) wrote epistles and these were considered to be Scriptures.
Whether or not the NT scriptures were complete at the time of writing is really irrelevant. God was well able to say "all scripture" and include those yet to come into existence. We have the complete NT now, we have no excuse.
I also find it confusing that you would refer to this passage as an appeal for our bible being a complete and perfect volume. Now I'm inclined to believe it is, but that's not what the writer is saying. Our bible didn't exist then.
What I said:
The Bible says of itself that it is complete: as we have seen (2 Timothy 3:16-17), we are equipped for every good work. There is nothing lacking. It is perfect.
Are we equipped by every good work by the scriptures? Is there something outside the scriptures that can equip us for every good work? If so what is it?
Note the ":" after the words "The Bible says of itself that it is complete". I was using the statement from 2 Timothy3:17 "that the man of God may be complete, thoroughly equipped for every good work"
to indicate the total efficacy of the Scriptures and that that was all we need, NOT that the scriptures were all written down at the time of Paul's writing. The scriptures ARE now complete. It is entirely correct for me to say in the 21st century that "the Bible is complete", in both sense - that it lacks nothing necessary to bring about our thorough equipping AND it has been completed - i.e. all written down.
In fact, I don't see that the concept of a complete and perfect volume of scripture even existed then.
Read 1 Corinthians 13:9-10 and see the thread on "when the perfect comes".
If it did, then it was the Septuagint which contains books we reject and doesn't contain books we accept. Surely if the passage does in fact refer to a compiled volume of scripture it would refer to the one in use at the time and not the one compiled hundreds of years later.
You assume the absence of the written form of the NT at the time of the Apostles, this is incorrect.
Of course I don't think it is at all. I just think it's saying what it can be seen to be saying: ALL scripture is inspired by God. As such it can teach and correct etc... that we might be perfected.
All scripture is inspired by God. Both the OT and The NT. But this does not mean that everything found in both the OT and NT are binding on us today.
Romans 10:17 does indeed say that faith comes by hearing and hearing by the word of God. Context is interesting here. The passage is about the need to preach the gospel. Essentially it's saying that we need to tell people about Jesus because they won't have faith unless they hear God's word in the first place. Your understanding is dependant on your understanding of 2 Timothy as discussed earlier in this post.
The word "hearing" means "active hearing" in Romans 10:17. It is possible to hear the gospel without hearing it through the
sense of hearing. If faith only comes through having the gospel preached to you and hearing it, what about deaf people? Sounds like a silly question, I know, but points out that faith does not only come from hearing someone preach the gospel, it can come from hearing the message through reading it. Yes, preaching is important, but only is it contains the word of God. Revelation 3:22 says
"He who has an ear, let him hear what the Spirit says to the churches."
Now this was written in a letter and sent to the churches. The Spirit could be heard through the written word.
The inclusion of Romans 14 for your argument is an interesting one.
Rom 14:23 And he that doubteth is damned if he eat, because he eateth not of faith: for whatsoever is not of faith is sin.
Context seems to have been completely overlooked to find a convenient prooftext for your conclusion which followed.
Yes, the context is related to eating foods while doubting, however Paul appeals to a general principle to show this to be unapproved behaviour. The use of the word "whatsoever" shows the statement "
for whatsoever is not of faith is sin" to be a general statement
. The word "faith" refers to the faith a person has, which can also be expressed as the "lack of doubt". So faith equals lack of doubt. If you are not certain of something, you should not do it. How are we to know what is pleasing to God? How can we know what he wants us to do? The answer is through His word. The areas of doubt correspond to the areas of scripture silence. Does this mean that as long as a person thinks something is right, that it therefore IS right? Hardly. A person's faith must be based on The Faith.
a Faith comes from God's word
b Whatever is not of faith is sin.
c Therefore whatever does not come from God's word is sin.
Forgive me for adding the red letters. I did that for convenience. You are saying that a + b = c and I disagree. It's poor logic to assume as much, though I understand how you did.
a)You've equated God's word directly with the text of the NT, demanding a 100% correlation. Now it is true that the NT only contains God's word, but it isn't true that God's word is only contained in the NT. Without that direct correlation the argument falls apart.
The statement "Faith comes from the Word of God" stands. I do not believe that God's word is
only the NT. However, the NT is the only part of the Word of God that is binding upon us.
Hebrews 8:13
In that He says, 
A new covenant, He has made the first obsolete. Now what is becoming obsolete and growing old is ready to vanish away.
Further, you've made the statement an exhaustive one. ie Faith ONLY comes from the text of the NT. That's another flaw in your understanding. People had faith before it was written and people can have faith without ever hearing the exact words of the NT. Of course they'll have to hear of the things it contains to have faith in Christ, but they don't need to hear the exact words to have faith. Those who were asked to preach the word in the correlating passage didn't even have the exact words yet.
You are assuming I mean the "text of the NT". It does not matter how the word of God is transmitted, however the most accurate method of its transmission is the written word. With it, one can be like those of Berea (yes, I know they would have been using the OT scriptures, but the principle is the same).
Consider the following:
Colossians 3:17
And whatever you do in word or deed, do all in the name of the Lord Jesus, giving thanks to God the Father through Him.
To "do all in the name" of Christ, means to do all by the authority of Christ. This authority comes from His word:
Jn 14:26
Butthe Helper, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in My name, He will teach you all things, and bring to your remembrance all things that I said to you.
Jn 16:13-14
However, when He, the Spirit of truth, has come, He will guide you into all truth; for He will not speak on His own authority, but whatever He hears He will speak; and He will tell you things to come. 14 He will glorify Me, for He will take of what is Mine and declare it to you.
The words delivered by the Holy Spirit came through the authority of Christ. In the words of the NT we have that which enable us to do all in the name of (by the authority of) Christ.
This ties in with 2 Peter 1:3
"
as His divine power has given to us all things that pertain to life and godliness, through the knowledge of Him who called us by glory and virtue"
The knowledge of Christ gives us all things that pertain to life and godliness.
Jude 3
Beloved, while I was very diligent to write to you concerning our common salvation, I found it necessary to write to you exhorting you to contend earnestly for the faith which was once for all delivered to the saints.
I'm still wanting to know whether you believe that the Bible's silence neither authorises or prohibits.
Refrus
There is much to be learned from the O.T. (Rom. 15:4). There are the types, copies, and shadows of Jesus, salvation, etc. And, there are examples of disobedience that we should learn from (e.g. 1 Corinthians 10:1-13), as well as examples of obedience (Hebrews 11). Without a doubt, the O.T. is a part of the "all Scripture" in 2 Tim. 3:16-17 that makes us complete to serve God today. 
