While I cannot say with certainty that Isaiah is pointing to Islam, how do we tell what is a prophecy of israel and what is a prophecy of something else?Unhappily, I feel like Muslims are falling into the same trap that Christianity has faced and still faces: grasping for support from the Hebrew Bible when there is none.
Isaiah 54 mimics Isaiah 52 and Isaiah 53: they all colorfully describe the redemption of Israel in full view of the gentiles who are her [Israel] previous persecutors; while Isaiah 54 goes on to describe the cheerful fate for the Jewish people.
Isaiah 54 ends: this is the heritage of the servants of the Lord [Israel] and their vindication is from Me [God]
I think Muslims are grasping at something that isnt there: in no way does the Hebrew point to Islam [a new religion].
Am I right to say that in some context of the OT, the hebrew text can be interpreted in some future event, a prophecy.
On what basis is it a prophecy of Israel. On what basis can it be for something else?
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