Paradoxum
Liberty, Equality, Solidarity!
- Sep 16, 2011
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^ NICE!
A little "ahead of your years" aren't ya!
Me?
If so, how do you mean?
I think there's a difference, even in physics, between physical space and geometric space, at least insofar as the former is only one kind of structure (I guess), but geometry admits of infinite variations on the concept of space. To the extent that space and time are symmetrical notions, this geometric freedom in understanding space carries over to time.
I'm not totally sure of the distinction your are trying to make, and why it is important.
Now by Kant's lights, the proof of the law of cause and effect depends on the role of our minds in integrating all the successive moments of successive temporal perception. Succession, in time, is mapped purely by a straight line. So it is only the first dimension of time that corresponds to a minimal conception of physics as the strict domain of cause and effect. We often say of our emotions that they are "highs" and "lows," and music corresponds to ups and downs in our feelings, so it seems to me as if our emotions are our minds tracing lines up and down on a different axis of time than the axis of the succession line. Three-dimensional time is, I think, our ability to imagine things (we use the mirroring principle of space and time to represent a three-dimensional spatial manifold using our inner temporal consciousness).
I can't really comment much on Kant without properly reading what he has to say.
But the talk of emotional highs and lows is just a manner of speaking. Up/high is associated with heaven, and down/low is associated with hell. Emotions that feel nice are therefore said to be good or high, and vice versa. It seems to me that you are basing your philosophy on manners of speech that have naturally evolved through culture. That doesn't seem like safe ground to stand on.
I don't know what it means for emotions to go up or down in time, and I wonder if you know what it means either. As I said before, very abstract theories can very easily go wrong.
Couldn't you just as well say, "The laws of logic are just brain functions"? I mean, grant that this is the case. This doesn't say anything about why our brains function the way they do. Likewise, why do our brains interpret (some) sound waves as expressive of emotion?
I don't see why you think the laws of logic are comparable to music. 1+1=2 is quite different from, "that sounds nice". I think research has been done into music and why some sound good to use and why some sound bad.
Eg: Some sounds sound bad because they indicate something bad (eg: a baby crying, a scream). Perhaps it also has to do with how humans talk. Some voice frequencies express fear or malice, and others kindness and love.
I don't know alot about music and the brain though.
If at time t I can do a or fail to do a, then I have "the ability to do otherwise" at t. Whenever I do something wrong, it must've been possible for me to not do it (as, "You ought not do it," was true, and whatever ought to be the case can be the case), yet clearly it was also possible for me to do it (as if it hadn't been, then my doing it wouldn't've happened). So it seems to me as if when I do something wrong, I have "the ability to do otherwise."
Saying that you ought not to do X, in this usage of it, already assumes that you have free will, so you can't use it to prove free will. It is circular. You can't just say you ought to do X therefore it must be possible to do X. If in fact there were no free will someone could still say you ought to do X, but that wouldn't make it magically true.
Why can't an event (a) be undetermined by prior causes and effects and yet (b) done by me? Would that be a random event?
If it is done by you why did you do X rather than Y? If you can't based your reason on prior states, then it would seem you can have no reason why you chose to do X rather than Y. If there is no reason for it, what would you call it other than random?
Here's where the science-philosophy divide sends your reasoning down a questionable path, though. A psychological theory can be a metaphysical theory, and vice versa; so Arendt's theory can be understood as both psychological and metaphysical.
Actually, Arendt never says anything about higher-dimensional time, as far as I know. Citing her in this thread, all I meant was that her model of forgiveness makes sense from a +1D time standpoint. However, I think of time as at least as subjective as objective, wherefore all psychology must depend somehow on time (inasmuch as time is part of the way that we have mental states at all), so again, this standpoint, while metaphysical, is also psychological.
Perhaps you are right that the psychological can also be metaphysical, but in this case, it just involves making stuff up for no reason.
Off the top of my head, and as I claimed in a different thread, almost every major ethical philosopher has defended self-discipline as a good.
Well I have no problem with ethics.
As far as metaphysics goes, I would be straining the evidence at my disposal to claim that Kant's theories are, in general, basically identical to Plato's or Aristotle's, for instance. But if you look at the way that they look at reason/the intellect, you find out (or I think you find out) that they, among others, implicitly ground knowledge not in axioms per se but in the ability to ask questions. If you were going to delimit science from philosophy, you might even say that the limit has nothing to do with the answers involved on either side but on the relative emphasis on our erotetic power involved in the one compared to the other.
It's late, so I'm not really sure what to say to this.
There might be one in a way (at least, there might be a way to test Itzhak Bars' theory--I'm not sure, and I don't fully recall what it is he says on this subject, if anything). However, it seems like it would be difficult to empirically test a theory claiming the existence of things that are outside of the form of our empirical perception. For example, since we can't directly perceive space in higher-dimensional terms, all we can know about how many higher spatial dimensions there are is by inference from physics and so on grounded in lower-dimensional spatial intuition. Whether there are more than the 10 or so claimed by string theorists (or whoever) might be something of an unanswerable question.
Well I would trust philosophical theories which don't unnecessarily fly off into other worlds and dimensions more. We should look for answers in things we understand first before thinking we need to go beyond this 3D world. The only things that may need to go beyond the physical universe to be explained are quantum theory, cosmology, and consciousness. For consciousness, I mean normal current science might not be able to explain it.
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