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Is the ESV really Calvinist? also ESV&NKJV

ElainaMor

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I've been investigating the ESV with the 2011 updates. I think it is a nice blend of accuracy and readability...something I've been searching for. However I've read/heard that the ESV is slanted towards Calvinism, is this true? I would like to hear what you all have to say about this.

Also, the NKJV has been my primary bible...mostly because that is what my church uses and I've used it since I became a Christian. Through my research on translations I've read that the manuscripts the NKJV are translated from are not as reliable as what was used for the ESV. That the CT is more accurate and reliable. Can you shed light on this please...keep in mind I'm not a scholar just your average bible believing person :)

When studying I do refer to many translations...I'm just considering switching my primary translation.
 

childofdust

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Shalom, ElainaMor.

I've read/heard that the ESV is slanted towards Calvinism, is this true?
I can't say much about the ESV and Calvinism. But I do know from my own studies with the Hebrew texts themselves and from working with other translations that the ESV follows the same interpretive renderings of many other Christian translations throughout the centuries. It is not really very different at all. In fact, that's basically what the ESV's own preface says:

The English Standard Version (2011 ESV) stands in the classic mainstream of English Bible translations over the past half-millennium. The fountainhead of that stream was William Tyndale’s New Testament of 1526; marking its course were the King James Version of 1611 (KJV), the English Revised Version of 1885 (RV), the American Standard Version of 1901 (ASV), and the Revised Standard Version of 1952 and 1971 (RSV). In that stream . . .
The ESV is “in that stream” in terms of its interpretation and translation. And you can see that when you compare versions in that stream against each other. The differences are usually minor and insignificant. If there is an injection of Calvinistic thought, it is negligible. Compare the ESV to a translation outside that traditional stream (like the New JPS Tanakh, Artscroll's Stone Edition Tanach, one of Robert Alter's translations, or my own translation, the heavenly fire) and you will immediately see what the ESV might have been capable of in terms of being different from other traditional interpretations, but isn't.

Through my research on translations I've read that the manuscripts the NKJV are translated from are not as reliable as what was used for the ESV. . . . Can you shed light on this please
This is from the preface for the NKJV:

Daniel Bomberg printed the first Rabbinic Bible in 1516—17; that work was followed in 1524—25 by a second edition prepared by Jacob ben Chayyim and also published by Bomberg. The text of ben Chayyim was adopted in most subsequent Hebrew Bibles, including those used by the King James translators. The ben Chayyim text was also used for the first two editions of Rudolph KittelÂ’s Biblia Hebraica of 1906 and 1912. In 1937 Paul Kahie published a third edition of Biblia Hebraica. This edition was based on the oldest dated manuscript of the ben Asher text, the Leningrad Manuscript B 19a (A.D. 1008), which Kahie regarded as superior to that used by ben Chayyim.
A few things need to be said about this. First, the NKJV has the KJV as its background. The KJV uses the ben Chayyim text for the Old Testament, so the ben Chayyim text has a strong influence on the NKJV. You can see this to be the case when the preface says that Kahle regarded the Leningrad Codex to be superior to the ben Chayyim text, not the translators of the NKJV. They, obviously, do not think Leningrad is superior. The Preface goes on to admit as much:

For the New King James Version the text used was the 1967/1977 Stuttgart edition of the Biblia Hebraica, with frequent comparisons being made with the Bomberg edition of 1524—25.
In other words, the NKJV plays the ben Chayyim text off of Biblia Hebraica, which is the Lenningrad Codex.

So by now you're probably wondering what these texts are.

The Masoretic text is the traditional Jewish text copied and preserved by the scribes at Tiberias. A number of manuscripts exist which are “Masoretic” such as the Aleppo Codex or the Leningrad Codex. These are individual manuscripts that come directly out of the Masoretic tradition as authored and copied and prepared by the Masorettes.

Ben Chayyim was a marvel of a man. And he changed history by putting together the Masoretic text for printing press publication. However, he only had a few manuscripts at his disposal and all of them were different. So he did his best to take from all those manuscripts what he thought was the original Masoretic tradition and that became the ben Chayyim text. For the most part, it was very close. But the ben Chayyim text was an eclectic text based on no single manuscript in existence. In other words, the ben Chayyim Old Testament text didn't exist until ben Chayyim put it together (and thus it's called “ben Chayyim”).

So the basis of the KJV is a manuscript of the Old Testament that had never existed. It is Masoretic in name only because it is like the Masoretic text, but it isn't, itself a Masoretic text. It never existed in the Masoretic tradition. No Masorette ever worked on it. The Leningrad Codex, which is the basis of Biblia Hebraica, is part of the Masoretic tradition. So the KJV uses a text for the OT that was created by a man from multiple manuscripts based on no single manuscript in existence, and the NKJV at least puts that eclectic text on equal footing with the real Masoretic text preserved in Masoretic circles down through time.

So in respect to base texts, the KJV is worse than the NKJV since it is actually based on a text that never existed as an authoritative witness, but the NKJV isn't much better since it still depends on it. Many of the problems with ben Chayyim are small, sure. But they are problems nonetheless. Just in the first chapter of Genesis alone, I have counted over a dozen. The manuscript is riddled with them. Modern translations are better because they actually are based on real Masoretic manuscripts like Leningrad, instead of one created by a single man a long time after.
 
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Radagast

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I've been investigating the ESV with the 2011 updates. I think it is a nice blend of accuracy and readability...something I've been searching for. However I've read/heard that the ESV is slanted towards Calvinism, is this true? I would like to hear what you all have to say about this.

There was a thread about this a while back, but no actual evidence was posted.
 
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Unix

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Yes it's true - the ESV has reformed bias and if You know a bit of Church History You know that that means the same as Calvinistic bias.
I have many things to research, including a lot of reading to do, the forums have been distracting me from that, so I don't think I'm going to answer this question further (with for example verse examples).
However I've read/heard that the ESV is slanted towards Calvinism, is this true?
Regarding the 1977 Biblia Hebraica Stuttgartiensis, there's a whole lot of versions based on that, and some version based on both that and the Septuagint. I don't know what to suggest for Your reading level as You desire a quite high read-level for a Bible, because:
a) I don't know what Calvary-Chapel is so it's a bit difficult to give a correct recommendation based on Your beliefs
b) I focus mainly on more dynamic-equivalent and a bit easier to read versions. One formal equivalent version I have and like, is the UPDV 2.16, it's modern, but I suspect that one might be a too big step to take from having used the NKJV.
 
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ElainaMor

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So in respect to base texts, the KJV is worse than the NKJV since it is actually based on a text that never existed as an authoritative witness, but the NKJV isn't much better since it still depends on it. Many of the problems with ben Chayyim are small, sure. But they are problems nonetheless. Just in the first chapter of Genesis alone, I have counted over a dozen. The manuscript is riddled with them. Modern translations are better because they actually are based on real Masoretic manuscripts like Leningrad, instead of one created by a single man a long time after.

Thank you for your in-depth reply. Helps me understand textual criticism a bit more. Would you be able to give me any scriptures in what you were referring to in the above quote? Thanks
 
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childofdust

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Would you be able to give me any scriptures in what you were referring to in the above quote?

I'm not sure what you mean... Do you mean differences between ben Chayyim and Leningrad? If so, here's a few from the first chapter of Genesis and a few from other places that are more significant (L = Leningrad, B = ben Chayyim):

Gen 1:14
L = הַשָּׁמַיִם - short-A (pathatch)
B = הַשָּׁמָיִם- long-A (qamets)
This word (the sky/heavens) always has a short-A (dual ending) except when it occurs in pausal form with athnach or silluq, which lengthens the vowel (see Gen 1:17 and 1:20 respectively). In this instance, there is no athnach or silluq so the word should have the dual ending (short-A). Leningrad is correct. Ben Chayyim is in error. To represent this in English, it would be like having one manuscript say “heavens” and another manuscript say “hevans.”

Gen 1:21
L = כָּל־ - long-A (qamets)
B = כַּל־ - short-A (pathach)
As far as I know, there is no such word in Hebrew as כַּל. The word כָּל, however, means “all/each.” Leningrad is correct. Ben Chayyim is in error. To represent this in English, it would be like having one manuscript say “al” and another one say “all.”

Those examples are small and minor, but when there's literally a dozen or more of these errors in every single chapter, you quickly realize that there must be something better out there than ben Chayyim. And, indeed, there is!

Some examples of more profound differences:

Isaiah 10:16
L = “the lord, YHWH of hosts”
B = “the lord, the lord of hosts”

Proverbs 8:16
L = “all the righteous judges”
B = “all the judges of the earth”

Ezekiel 30:18
L = “the day will be held back”
B = “the day will be darkened”

Zephaniah 3:15
L = “you will not fear affliction again”
B = “you will not see affliction again”
 
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hedrick

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I've seen many claims of Calvinist orientation but no evidence, even disputable evidence. It is true, however, that the translators tend to be Reformed, and the study bibles based on it (at least the ones I know about) are Reformed.

My main problem with it is that I think it's too literal. But I was never their market anyway. I use the NRSV, and to some extent the CEB.
 
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Striver

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The whole "Calvinist" ESV argument seems (to me) to revolve around one particular passage, which is Genesis 17:1. I'm going to throw up a couple versions and highlight the central issue in bold, just for referencing:

Genesis 17:1-2 ESV
When Abram was ninety-nine years old the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty;t walk before me, and be blameless, that I may make my covenant between me and you, and may multiply you greatly."

Gen. 17:1-2 NIV
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to him and said, "I am God Almighty; walk before me and be blameless. I will confirm my covenant between me and you and will greatly increase your numbers."

Gen. 17:1-2 NLT
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to him and said, "I am El-Shaddai—'God Almighty.' Serve me faithfully and live a blameless life. I will make a covenant with you, by which I will guarantee to give you countless descendants."

Gen. 17:1-2 NASB
Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless. "I will establish My covenant between Me and you, And I will multiply you exceedingly."

Gen. 17:1-2 HCSB
When Abram was 99 years old, the Lord appeared to him, saying, "I am God Almighty. Live in My presence and be blameless. I will establish My covenant between Me and you, and I will multiply you greatly."

Gen. 17:1-2 NRSV
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram, and said to him, ‘I am God Almighty; walk before me, and be blameless. And I will make my covenant between me and you, and will make you exceedingly numerous.

Gen. 17:1-2 NRSV
When Abram was 99 years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am El Shaddai. Walk with me and be trustworthy. I will make a covenant between us and I will give you many, many descendants."

As an English major, I would note there is a clear distinction from using "I will" compared to "I may." If you look across the formal, dynamic, and equivalent spectrum, they all use "I will" but the ESV bucks that trend.

I think you can personally argue both ways on the matter, but there seems to be justification of a slight Reformed/Calvinistic slant in the translation based on this verse. "I may" [God speaking] places the emphasis much more strongly on the conditional nature of a covenant, which is a biggie for Reformed theology. It almost seems to make the passage say, "Abraham, if you walk blameless, then I may go into covenant with you" whereas "I will" would seem to place the emphasis on God doing the work of making Abraham blameless.

I mean you could argue that a covenant is a covenant, and I am certainly no expert in the original language here, but it is interesting the ESV diverges so strongly from the mainstream of Bible translation.

FWIW, I am at the least sympathetic to the Reformed point of view. I've explored it lately to work out my own theology on key matters.
 
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ElainaMor

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The whole "Calvinist" ESV argument seems (to me) to revolve around one particular passage, which is Genesis 17:1. I'm going to throw up a couple versions and highlight the central issue in bold, just for referencing:

Genesis 17:1-2 ESV
When Abram was ninety-nine years old the Lord appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty;t walk before me, and be blameless, that I may make my covenant between me and you, and may multiply you greatly."

Gen. 17:1-2 NIV
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to him and said, "I am God Almighty; walk before me and be blameless. I will confirm my covenant between me and you and will greatly increase your numbers."

Gen. 17:1-2 NLT
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to him and said, "I am El-Shaddai—'God Almighty.' Serve me faithfully and live a blameless life. I will make a covenant with you, by which I will guarantee to give you countless descendants."

Gen. 17:1-2 NASB
Now when Abram was ninety-nine years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am God Almighty; Walk before Me, and be blameless. "I will establish My covenant between Me and you, And I will multiply you exceedingly."

Gen. 17:1-2 HCSB
When Abram was 99 years old, the Lord appeared to him, saying, "I am God Almighty. Live in My presence and be blameless. I will establish My covenant between Me and you, and I will multiply you greatly."

Gen. 17:1-2 NRSV
When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to Abram, and said to him, ‘I am God Almighty; walk before me, and be blameless. And I will make my covenant between me and you, and will make you exceedingly numerous.

Gen. 17:1-2 NRSV
When Abram was 99 years old, the LORD appeared to Abram and said to him, "I am El Shaddai. Walk with me and be trustworthy. I will make a covenant between us and I will give you many, many descendants."

As an English major, I would note there is a clear distinction from using "I will" compared to "I may." If you look across the formal, dynamic, and equivalent spectrum, they all use "I will" but the ESV bucks that trend.

I think you can personally argue both ways on the matter, but there seems to be justification of a slight Reformed/Calvinistic slant in the translation based on this verse. "I may" [God speaking] places the emphasis much more strongly on the conditional nature of a covenant, which is a biggie for Reformed theology. It almost seems to make the passage say, "Abraham, if you walk blameless, then I may go into covenant with you" whereas "I will" would seem to place the emphasis on God doing the work of making Abraham blameless.

I mean you could argue that a covenant is a covenant, and I am certainly no expert in the original language here, but it is interesting the ESV diverges so strongly from the mainstream of Bible translation.

FWIW, I am at the least sympathetic to the Reformed point of view. I've explored it lately to work out my own theology on key matters.

That does seem strange. I'd have to re-find them but in my investigation of the ESV I've noticed several places where the ESV picked a word or wording that was different from most/all current translations. Several times I've had to think to myself, "Now I wonder why they chose that word/wording when everyone else translates it as this"
 
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childofdust

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Insteresting. Thanks for giving that verse, CrazyTech.

I can tell you all what's going on in that verse.

The first Hebrew word of verse 2 is a verb in the Cohortative form. If it were simply Imperfect, it would normally be translated “I will...” But Cohortative adds a mood to the verb such as desire, intent, purpose, command, plea, consequence, etc. It is often represented in English translation like this: “May I...” or “Let me...” In this particular instance, the use of the Cohortative seems to be one of consequence, so instead of “may I” or “let me,” I would translate it “so that I may.” The ESV is spot on. The real question is why the other translations treat it like a regular Imperfect instead of a Cohortative.

The Net Bible gives another good translation:

“When Abram was 99 years old, the Lord appeared to him and said, “I am the sovereign God. Walk before me and be blameless. Then I will confirm my covenant between me and you, and I will give you a multitude of descendants.”
By placing a “then” before “I will,” this turns the normal Imperfect into a Cohortative.


And just in case you don't believe me about the Hebrew, here is the NET bible's own note on this verse:

“the cohortative indicates consequence.” - textual note 7

The NET Bible and the ESV give the better translations. And please note, I say this as someone working with the original language and as someone who utterly rejects Calvinism.
 
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Unix

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Yes, I can confirm that some of my favourite versions (which You guys perhaps don't have and some of which are not available free online) all have will make in Gn 17:1f:
1948 Confraternity Version
1975 Bible In Order (99¾% same as JB)
1992 GNT-CE
2011-2012 Updated Bible Version 2.15-2.16
I was unable to check with the 1989 which is among my top-favourites due to that I've never had the OT of it (I currently only have some photocopied pages), but soon it's released in Logos and I have pre-ordered it, it has many strength, is ecumenical, and with very little sectarian bias: The Revised English Bible with the Apocrypha - Logos Bible Software See also: British Bibles on Pre-Pub NEB and REB - Logos Bible Software Forums
The 2002 Victor Nimrud Alexanders translation from ancient Aramaic has shall make, what do You think of that translation, childofdust?
Ancient Aramaic Bible Translation Project, Civilization, Communication, and Creative Filmmaking., April 4. 2002: ¹And Abram reached the age of ninety-nine and the Lord revealed Himself to Abram and said to him, "I am the Eil, the Almighty. Worship before me and be without fault. ²"And I shall make my covenant between me and for you, and I shall enrich you exceedingly."
I've noticed several places where the ESV picked a word or wording that was different from most/all current translations.
So the NET-Bible gives the best, least biased translation?! Something specific to say in favour of version then.
The NET Bible and the ESV give the better translations.
 
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Radagast

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That does seem strange. I'd have to re-find them but in my investigation of the ESV I've noticed several places where the ESV picked a word or wording that was different from most/all current translations. Several times I've had to think to myself, "Now I wonder why they chose that word/wording when everyone else translates it as this"

That's not a Calvinism thing, but a recent understanding of the Hebrew. The new NIV has the similar: When Abram was ninety-nine years old, the Lord appeared to him and said, “I am God Almighty; walk before me faithfully and be blameless. Then I will make my covenant between me and you and will greatly increase your numbers.” and the CEV has Abram was ninety-nine years old when the Lord appeared to him again and said, “I am God All-Powerful. If you obey me and always do right, I will keep my solemn promise to you and give you more descendants than can be counted.”
 
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This is what it looks like in an old lexicon: נָתַן Gesenius' Hebrew-Chaldee Lexicon 1846, p. 573: (2) i.q. שׂוּם to set, to put, to place (feßen, ftellen, legen). Gen. 1:17; 9:13; 15:10; 1 Ki. 7:39; Eze. 3:20; e.g. to place snares, Ps. 119:110; defences (followed by עַל) Eze. 26:8; to make a covenant, Gen. 9:12; 17:2. Specially—(a) נָתַן לִפְנֵי to set before any one, 1 Ki. 9:6.—(b) followed by acc. of pers. and עַלַ of pers. or thing; to set some one over any person or thing, Gen. 41:41, 43; Deu. 17:15; but with an acc. of thing, and עַלַ of pers. to impose any thing upon any one, as a yoke, 2 Ch. 10:9; a fine, 2 Ki. 23:33; also sin, i.e. to impute sin; to inflict its penalty upon any one, Jonah 1:14; Eze. 7:3; comp. Deu. 21:8.—(c) נָתַן לֵב לְ to apply the heart to any thing, to devote oneself to any thing, Eccl. 1:13, 17; 8:9, 16; Dan. 10:12; a phrase which is more emphatic than שׂוּם לֵב עַל to turn the heart to anything. It is also said, נָתַן דָּבָר אֶל לֵב פּ׳ to put any thing into one’s heart, (used of God), Neh. 2:12; 7:5; and נָתַן אֶל לִבּוֹ ἐν φρεσὶ θεῖναι, Ecc. 7:2; 9:1.
That's not a Calvinism thing, but a recent understanding of the Hebrew. [...] and the CEV has Abram was ninety-nine years old when the Lord appeared to him again and said, “I am God All-Powerful. If you obey me and always do right, I will keep my solemn promise to you and give you more descendants than can be counted.”
 
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hedrick

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"Then I will" seems better. Subjective mood is increasingly uncommon. Many readers will understand "I may" as indicating that he may or may not. RSV has "and I will" which isn't wonderful English but gives some of the flavor without the same ambiguity.
 
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Striver

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Thanks for all the input. The cohortative (here is a link to some further info for those less knowledgeable like myself) aspect makes sense. I suppose it's not as a big of a deal as I initially thought, but intriguing nonetheless.

And my fault on the NIV - I thought that was the NIV11 when I grabbed it, but apparently the site still listed the NIV84 as NIV. The case is a lot less weaker because I don't think you can argue the NIV has a Reformed slant.
 
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