I'm not usually the intended audience of most CF threads, as I use the platform to learn and interact, not to proselytize.
But prophecy also needs exegesis.
Incorrect. See below.
Is there any prophecy, both Biblical and even directly in your life, that did not require some sort of interpretation? My experience is that there is always a needed level of interpretation, to one degree or another...I don't think you can ever get away from fallible exegetical efforts, because the nature of language prevents it. Both prophecy and scripture require exegesis. I can't see how that can ever be avoided.
You're simply pointing out the fact that where a revelation is brief (i.e. isn't fully extrapolated), questions remain. You then jump to the conclusion that the ideal remedy is - fallible exegesis/interpretation? Hardly. Take a look at Numbers 12 where the unclear revelations given to immature prophets contrasts with the clear revelations unto the mature prophet Moses.
Obviously, Moses had more clarity because he got more comprehensive direct revelation, not because he was a better scholar supremely skilled in exegesis.
I do agree, as already avowed several times, that in the absence of the needed revelation, we understandably fall back on fallible exegesis/interpretation as a crutch. But that's not the ideal solution to a lack of clarity.
Interesting, but I can't see how it follows that anyone should ever see themselves as infallible.
No, not infallible in general - infallible ON A GIVEN ISSUE for which they have 100% certainty. Suppose I have 100% certainty that all angels are five feet tall. Someone asks me, 'Are angels five feet tall?" I then reply, "I'm not sure. I'm not infallible on this point." I would be LYING.
Anyone who thinks that's an appropriate response either doesn't understand 100% certainty or doesn't understand lies.
I saw that post but don't buy it. Because, as stated above, prophecy also always requires exegesis.
See above.
The trouble with making personal direct revelation a higher authority than the Bible is it elevates my exegesis over that of the historical and present day community, which is both dangerous and foolish (IMO)....
(Sigh) Again, you'll need to provide at least one clear exception to the rule of conscience.
... However, it appears to work much more healthily when the Bible is an agreed authority amongst us. I've had plenty of people in my pastoral experience who honestly believe God told them to leave their spouse. No that's not God, that's just your own voice. But we can know it's not God because the recorded words of Jesus tell us that God hates divorce
You mean sort of like, when Moses heard a voice commanding him to slaughter seven nations to possess Canaan, he new it was NOT God's voice since the recorded words of God say, 'Thou shall not kill'?
But it turns out that it WAS God's voice, despite any APPARENT contradiction to Scripture. Exegesis is fallible.
Again, you are merely pretending to have access to 'the recorded words of God'. All you really have access to, via exegesis, is your own fallible interpretations/opinions. And you know what they say about opinions. Everybody's got one. No hope for objectivity there.
I've had plenty of people in my pastoral experience who honestly believe God told them to leave their spouse.
You would seem to be a mind-reader, given these words.
And since you can read minds, did they have 100% certainty at that moment? Or at least tell me this. Obviously they were faced with two choices action A and B. One of them, in their minds, was felt to be the morally right choice. The other was felt to be the morally wrong choice.
Based on your reading of minds, which one did they go with? And if they went with the choice perceived to be morally upright, would you approve or disapprove? Why or why not?