G
Galilean
Guest
I'm not talking about child molestation - I hope there isn't anyone here who needs to argue about whether sexually abusing children is wrong or not.
I am talking about the concept alone, that is just people who are sexually attracted to children. Is the urge itself wrong?
I have been told (on these forums) that to say anyone is perverted for their sexual prefence,
is the same as saying that an african-american is a pervert for having black skin (yeh, I don't know either
).
And I guess the same goes for other orientations like zoophilia,
and necrophilia and or gendophilia. Forget about the issue of violating an animal/dead body/tree. I'm talking about the urge itself. Is there anything immoral, or perverted about a person who has these urges, or the urges themselves. One thing people tend to say about homosexuals is that if you knew one, then you would realise they are a person just like anyone else. This would also apply to say, a pedophile, who hasn't and doesn't molest children, but is attracted to children. Lots of the things we say to accept homosexuals would apply to these other sexual orientations. People who accept homosexaulity say that it is ok because its between two consenting adults, as opposed to pedophilia or zoophilia where an animal or child cannot consent and they are being violated - but what I want to know from 'you' is, is there anything immoral or perverted about just the urges themselves or the people who have them. And if so,
why is it different when it comes to homosexuals.
Also . . .
Would you be against discrimination? if someone was not hired for a job not because they have molested kids or because they are any danger or harm to anyone but just because they have pedophilic, or zoophilic or exhibitionist fantasies/urges/fetishes, would you think thats wrong?
Say if there was a movie about a cow boy having an affair with a horse, would you have the same veiws on it that you do with brokeback mountain? (for the people who accept the movie)
I am talking about the concept alone, that is just people who are sexually attracted to children. Is the urge itself wrong?
I have been told (on these forums) that to say anyone is perverted for their sexual prefence,
is the same as saying that an african-american is a pervert for having black skin (yeh, I don't know either
). And I guess the same goes for other orientations like zoophilia,
and necrophilia and or gendophilia. Forget about the issue of violating an animal/dead body/tree. I'm talking about the urge itself. Is there anything immoral, or perverted about a person who has these urges, or the urges themselves. One thing people tend to say about homosexuals is that if you knew one, then you would realise they are a person just like anyone else. This would also apply to say, a pedophile, who hasn't and doesn't molest children, but is attracted to children. Lots of the things we say to accept homosexuals would apply to these other sexual orientations. People who accept homosexaulity say that it is ok because its between two consenting adults, as opposed to pedophilia or zoophilia where an animal or child cannot consent and they are being violated - but what I want to know from 'you' is, is there anything immoral or perverted about just the urges themselves or the people who have them. And if so,
why is it different when it comes to homosexuals.
Also . . .
Would you be against discrimination? if someone was not hired for a job not because they have molested kids or because they are any danger or harm to anyone but just because they have pedophilic, or zoophilic or exhibitionist fantasies/urges/fetishes, would you think thats wrong?
Say if there was a movie about a cow boy having an affair with a horse, would you have the same veiws on it that you do with brokeback mountain? (for the people who accept the movie)
I applaud your bold attempt to try and liken a tolerance of homosexuality to a tolerance of every urge under the sun.