So what. How does that translate into a command or prove they were keeping a command?
bugkiller
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So what. How does that translate into a command or prove they were keeping a command?In fact Acts 18:4 "EVERY SABBATH" we see both jews and gentiles gather for worship and gospel preaching in the synagogues.
Then indeed jots and tittles of the law have changed.They are moral but even in the OT - only 3 of the annual feast - ceremonial Sabbaths were binding on the Jews as mandatory. Skipping 4 of the other annual events was not a sin even by OT standards. So when we speak of "moral" law we mean the 1 John 3:4 sense in which to violate that law is to sin.
Then indeed jots and tittles of the law have changed.
bugkiller
He kept the Sabbath day many times (Acts 13:14,Acts 13:42-44, Acts 16:13, Acts 17:2, Acts 18:4, Acts 18:11) and he also observed the feasts (Acts 18:21, Acts 20:6, Acts 20:16, Acts 27:9, 1 Corinthians 5:7-8). He circumcised Timotheus in Acts 16:1-3, took a Nazarite vow (Acts 18:18, Acts 21:22-24), and did other offerings besides just the vow (Acts 24:17). He said he hadn't broken any point of the law of the Jews in Acts 25:8 and said he believes all of the law and the prophets in Acts 24:14.
With all this in mind, for him to teach people not to follow the law would be extremely hypocritical. Did Christ become of no effect to Timotheus as the result of Paul (Galatians 5:2)? Was Paul observing weak and beggarly elements (Galatians 4:9-10), mere shadows of Christ (Colossians 2:16-17), by keeping the feasts and sabbath? Was Paul fallen from grace for keeping the law (Galatians 5:4)? That's the standard anti-law interpretation of those verses after all.
He said faith doesn't void the law (Romans 3:31). He said the law is holy, just, and good (Romans 7:12). He delights in the law (Romans 7:22). He said the carnal mind is not subject to the law and is against God (Romans 8:7) He extorted us to follow him as he follows Jesus (1 Corinthians 11:1). He told Timothy that all scripture was profitable for instruction in righteousness (2 Timothy 3:16-17) and from 2 Timothy 3:15 we know he had the scripture since he was a child, so what scripture existed back then?
2 Peter 3:15-16 says Paul is hard to be understood and there are people who will wrest his letters to their own destruction. Deuteronomy 13:1-5 says if anyone who tries to lead you away from the law is a false prophet even if they do signs and wonders and Isaiah 8:20 says anyone who doesn't have the law has no light in them.
So what. How does that translate into a command or prove they were keeping a command?
bugkiller
Who's leg do you think you're trying to pull? I read the book.Not in real life - as the irrefutable point shows in the post you quoted.
The OT itself did not require that all the Lev 23 annual feasts were mandatory. Thus the "option" that we see in Romans 14 for selecting one above the others - was a practice - unchanged since the OT times.
If Jesus demonstrated obedience to the law, do think there could be a reason other than being a Jew needing to a spotless Lamb to redeem the whole world?In fact Acts 18:4 "EVERY SABBATH" we see both jews and gentiles gather for worship and gospel preaching in the synagogues.
As Travis points out in the very post you respond to - Christ demonstrated obedience to the Law of God.
What is more in Mark 7:6-13 Christ condemns the Jewish leaders "sola scriptura" for daring to set aside even one commandment of God (TEN Commandments in this case - are the subject where ONE is being set aside).
And of course the teaching of Christ -- just as it was in the GIVING of the TEN Commandments.
"Love Me and KEEP my Commandments" EX 20:6
"If you LOVE Me KEEP My Commandments" John 14:15
"The saints KEEP the Commandments of God AND their faith in Jesus" Rev 14:12
Yes, the reason being to give us an example to follow. See 1 Peter 2:21-22, 1 John 2:6, and Romans 8:29.If Jesus demonstrated obedience to the law, do think there could be a reason other than being a Jew needing to a spotless Lamb to redeem the whole world?
bugkiller
Are in insinuating there are no ritual laws in Torah?All laws are moral. The laws about our fellow man teach us how to love our neighbor, and the other laws teach us how to love God. Take the 10 commandments. If you love your neighbor, you won't kill, steal, lie, commit adultery, dishonor your parents, or cover their possessions. If you love God, you won't serve other gods, make graven images or bow to them, profane his name, or break his sabbath. Even if you aren't sinning against a fellow man you can still sin against God.
Then Jesus would make the OT be a lie.Yes, the reason being to give us an example to follow. See 1 Peter 2:21-22, 1 John 2:6, and Romans 8:29.
I'm saying that I don't see a distinction in the law between "moral" and "ceremonial" like many do.Are in insinuating there are no ritual laws in Torah?
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