Druweid
{insert witty phrase}
- Aug 13, 2005
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Ah! A few more than expected.jsfox said:I think most or all of what I wrote is considered fairly common knowledge among historians and anthropologists whove studied the history of sex and marriage and is covered in a number of books. A few that Ive either read or use as reference include...
Yes, I am somewhat familiar, not with the specifics, but of the existence of such papers. My concern, however, is that there have been a number of papers and books written which I believe tend toward being subjective, that is, I believe they've been written to promote to authors personal belief of polygamy rather than with proper objectivity. But then, I'll reserve further opinion until I've had a chance to complete further research.jsfox said:There are also a large number of research papers that cover these issues as well.
Accepted and agreed, you had not out-right said it, though it had seemed to be implied. That could simply be a matter of semantics. I did not take "...concept of an expectation..." as being synonymous with "social norm."jsfox said:Please note that I never said that Monogamy was never practiced prior to the Greeks and Romans, only that it was not forced as a social norm.
Possible, but I don't believe this was the case so very often. It doesn't fit the arguement to say that some were polygamous (as mentioned further down) and yet others were monogamous for lack of choice. Also, from a social science point-of-view, the lowest classes are almost always among the most populous.jsfox said:In all likelihood the majority of married men pre Christ were actually in monogamous marriages simply due to lack of marriageable partners.
Here is where the entire subject can become very arguable. For lack of a written record or history during the reign of the Celtic culture, much of what is known is through archeological and anthropological research. Not exactly concrete stuff. I believe, however, much of the "established" information from the above-mentioned sources is accurate, and an educated mind can make reasonable inferences from that information.jsfox said:The first time that I, or most historians, believe there was a social directive for monogamy though was Greek society.
For instance, it is fairly well known and established that there was an aristocracy, possibly a royal ruling class, as far back as 700 BCE (The Hallstatt period), and likely even further in the past. I am not aware of any direct evidence discovered that proves these 'royalty' were typically polygamous, though nothing to prove they were typically monogamous either. Given that 'royalty' is usually monogamous to avoid disputes of authority, property, etc., and given that this class of people hadn't grown to a notable size over the period of 200 years, is it reasonable to believe that it may have been thier 'social norm' to be monogamous? Again, there is no solid answer, though I find it good food for thought.
I find such statements very difficult to accept at face value. Among a merchant class, perhaps, but not among the lower classes. If you have five royals, twenty merchants, and two-hundred surfs, where is the room for "marriage for business?" The proportion in this example isn't exact, but it's well within reason for discussion. Examination of ancient grave sites in Hallstatt, Austria indicate the proportion was much wider.jsfox said:Marriage for business was most common among the serfs and common classes. A man and woman needed the resources of the other to make their way in life. Love had little to do with it.
More to the point, I am familiar with the research.jsfox said:Specific to the Celts you may well know more than I.
Yes, absolutely, I had not disputed you earlier statement "Throughout the first whatever thousand years of human history polygyny (one man, several wives/concubines) and monogamy co-existed, as best we can tell..." I certainly concede that, for the most part, both existed in unknown proportion. May main point is that monogamy HAD existed, and that it *may* have been a social norm in some way.jsfox said:However, in googling for a minute I found hundreds of websites seeming to reference that polygamy was at least somewhat common among the Celts...
Here, too, is a good point to consider; if we know with some certainty that monogamy existed, and can reasonably assume it was NOT a social norm, what might that say about monogamy unto itself? You suggested it may have been due to lack of marriageble partners. Perhaps, but what if that was NOT the case? Food for thought.
Yes, and this may be part of the concept you presented, of working or lowerclass men seeking marriage for reasons of business or social status. Again, I believe that it may have existed, but given disproportion among the classes, was not necessarily the norm.jsfox said:I also found a couple of sites mentioning that women (who had extensive rights under Celtic society) were allowed and sometimes encouraged to practice polyandry (1 woman, multiple husbands) both among Gaelic Celts and those on the continent...
I will give your sources due consideration. My nature is to seek truth, not dispute.
Respectfully,
-- Druweid
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