A question for all of my Presbyterian friends.
I'm confused about why this is even an issue. The Psalms are certainly a good source of inspiration for worship songs, but there is nothing in the Bible that says our songs must be from the Psalms and be unaccompanied. Even David used a harp. Was it a sin to sing worship songs to God before the Psalms were written? There were many different instruments used in the Bible and the only time God rejected worship was when it didn't come from the heart.
There are some on this particular forum who would strongly disagree with that assessment. i am not among them. It seems to me that they would have a lot of scripture to rationalise away.I'm confused about why this is even an issue. The Psalms are certainly a good source of inspiration for worship songs, but there is nothing in the Bible that says our songs must be from the Psalms and be unaccompanied. Even David used a harp. Was it a sin to sing worship songs to God before the Psalms were written? There were many different instruments used in the Bible and the only time God rejected worship was when it didn't come from the heart.
Most Presbyterians [who this thread was solely intended for] would historically abide by what is called the regulative principle of worship.
"Everything that I command you, you shall be careful to do. You shall not add to it or take from it." [Deuteronomy 12:32]
Thus, it argues that we are only to do in worship that which is set out in Scripture, and nothing more.
Ah, that makes a little bit more sense, but still, that's talking about adding to God's law or taking away from it, so if they are adding a law that it is a sin to sing anything other than unaccompanied Psalms, then they are actually violating the very same law that they are seeking to obey.
i have some issues with the theory that all aspects of the worship service were a part of the Old Covenant and only applicable to that time.
I currently go to a PCUSA church. Other than metal and electronica, I think I've heard most musical styles there. And the lyrics were not even usually psalms.
Again, this was meant to be a discussion of Reformed practice amongst modern Presbyterians.
Yes, that particular thought was concerning the Temple worship as laid out in Leviticus and other locations.Not all aspects of liturgy were a part of the Old Covenant, unless you're speaking exclusively to Temple Worship.
On Psalms only, see Col 3:16
Yes, that particular thought was concerning the Temple worship as laid out in Leviticus and other locations.
i do agree that not all aspects are part of the Old Covenant. It is when we start determining which are no longer operative that we get into trouble.
My own view is that i do not believe exclusive Psalmody was God's perfect will in the matter of worship, however, i believe it is permissible under the freedom of the Regulative Principle. i have often worshipped with congregations who practise exclusive Psalmody with no objections what-so-ever. i've even contemplated joining one such congregation (RPCNA)
Not in my part of the country. i'm from the Pittsburgh area. The RPCNA seminary is in Pittsburgh, they have a major college (Geneva College) in Beaver Falls PA, and there are about five or six congregations within an easy drive from my home.I like the RPCNA. Problem is it's so small.
Not in my part of the country. i'm from the Pittsburgh area. The RPCNA seminary is in Pittsburgh, they have a major college (Geneva College) in Beaver Falls PA, and there are about five or six congregations within an easy drive from my home.
The article doesn't try to argue that they are technical terms for sections of the Psalms.
Except for the fact that that's exactly what the article tries to argue for.