The New Testament very much uses the term "agape," and it is very much translated as "love." Does that perhaps mean the earliest Christian writers have universalized the term "agape" much like English has the term "love," giving it quite a diverse usage meaning various things dependent on context? Including sexual love - for instance it appears as "husbands love your wives."
So we don't have to look for "eros" in the original Greek in order to find reference to love that is or includes intimate bodily intimacy?
Another way of looking at it, has the broad usage of "love" even quite a lot developed from the N.T. "agape.?
I came to the realization of this as a possibility during the recent discussion http://www.christianforums.com/thre...xual-intercourse.7935641/page-5#post-69388643
which has been closed down for the past month "for review."
(No reason has been given for what appears to be arbitrary censorship - note it was the admin. who earlier had moved it from "Controversial Christian Theology.")
So we don't have to look for "eros" in the original Greek in order to find reference to love that is or includes intimate bodily intimacy?
Another way of looking at it, has the broad usage of "love" even quite a lot developed from the N.T. "agape.?
I came to the realization of this as a possibility during the recent discussion http://www.christianforums.com/thre...xual-intercourse.7935641/page-5#post-69388643
which has been closed down for the past month "for review."
(No reason has been given for what appears to be arbitrary censorship - note it was the admin. who earlier had moved it from "Controversial Christian Theology.")
