Though I do admit the initial question was slightly baited, it's only because this is my own subjective personal view, which is one of the many many reasons I reject claimed 'objectivity' of the Bible, or any other claimed asserted objective text. (I know such a statement also raises a deep chasm of claimed 'absolute truth'; but that too, is for another topic. I gladly accept your apology. However, it is not necessary We are on a 'Debate' forum and it is to be expected. I'll try not to take future posts personally.
I greatly appreciate the response. It eliminates a lot of back and forth... However, I must ask. By what standard were you able to conclude the Bible was God given? Second question, if the word of God is God's chosen mechanism, or vessel for truth, and the translation is flawed by human touch, why does God's correction appear absent? In a nutshell, all we have are long-ago written text, asserting divinity (with error in many 'possibly' observed 'objective' forms). This, of course, is presupposing that Yahweh exists.
Option 1. is the only one 'possibly' demonstrated. Even, in part, when reading the Bible.
If many facets appear not to align in (shared reality), I have no choice but to reject the claim of perfection and God inspired, assuming we are using the 'same' definition of 'God'.
For all intensive purposes, theists will point out that we are flawed in our logic. And yet, want to create a special circumstance, in somehow 'knowing' that the Bible is God inspired. I'm not saying you do this, but just an observation...
You've brought up some concerns which I must say are completely completely valid. I dont think there is a suitable answer that a skeptic would swallow. However, if the question is asked with the presumption that and onmipotently sovereign God exists, I would conclude that God would be able to preserve his word and that in time the truth will "float to the top". The question then becomes "Which God?" Muslims and Mormons both have texts that they claim are divine (Qur'an and Book of Mormon) so how do we know? How is the Christian claim any more valid that any other? Even the Books in the New Testament cannon were heavily debated and wasn't first recognized until the 4th century. Furthermore, the cannon what not officially established until the 16th century in the council of trent. I have done a little digging into the topic and found a source that is somewhat helpful. However, it does appear to be lacking in some regard.
How do we know that the Bible is the Word of God, and not the Apocrypha, the Qur'an, the Book of Mormon, etc.?
The bottom line is that scripture did not become canon when an authority declared it so. It was cannon when the author was inspired to write it on paper. The Church didn't establish canon, they merely recognized it and affirmed it. I know this is not a suitable answer for most skeptics who are looking for hard criteria to "know with certainty". But the simple answer is that (assuming God exists) divine truth was preserved and protected by the sovereign hand of God and was illuminated to the world through the power of the Holy Spirit. I believe that the Bible would have been established as divine by those led by the Holy Spirit regardless if any authority declared it so. Naturally, I have had very heated debates with my Catholic brothers over this issue. I will completely understand if the answer is less than satisfying. However, I will do some further research and let you know if I find anything more compelling.
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