Anybody knows more about the issue of the second part of Matt 28:19 being an interpolation?
I can find plenty of references concerning the Johanine Comma (1Jn5:7)
but nothing concrete about the baptismal phrase from the latter part of Matt28:19 except "proofs" that are based on textual and literary critisism.
Anybody came across anything more concrete?
Or should it be accepted as it is?
I can find plenty of references concerning the Johanine Comma (1Jn5:7)
but nothing concrete about the baptismal phrase from the latter part of Matt28:19 except "proofs" that are based on textual and literary critisism.
Anybody came across anything more concrete?
Or should it be accepted as it is?