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Interesting, But is it true.

genestealerbroodlord

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miamited

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Hi,

Well, let's check it against other versions. The ASV says: 35 And Philip opened his mouth, and beginning from this Scripture, preached unto him Jesus. 36 And as they went on the way, they came unto a certain water; and the eunuch saith, Behold, [here is] water; what doth hinder me to be baptized? 37 [And Philip said, If thou believest with all thy heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.] 38 And he commanded the chariot to stand still: and they both went down into the water, both Philip and the eunuch, and he baptized him.

Note that the passage in question on your youtube vid is in block parentheticals. Do you know what this means?

It is good to find these differences but just condemning a translation because it is different isn't of much value. How do we know that the one we are using to base our condemnation on isn't the one that's incorrect? What we want is the truth and so when we find situations such as these, the question is, which one is the truth?

Unfortunately the producers of this vid didn't go far enough and answer the question of which one is the truth. They have just assumed that the KJV is the truth and any differences in the NIV make it suspect as a lying translation. I believe, that if we research the heart of the matter we find that today, with all of the extant copies of what we have as the nearest, reliable copies of the original documents, that many of the passages have been removed because they were actually added at some time to the copies.

For example:

If we read up on the method used to create the KJV of the Scriptures, we find that the Textus Receptus, or the 'received text', was the basis on which the KJV was translated. The received text is a very good translation, but let it be understood that it is also a translation. Here is what one scholar wrote about the foundational manuscript of the KJV:

Noted scholar Philip Schaff observed that the King James Version was derived principally from early editions of the Greek text compiled by Erasmus (1469-1536), who never used more than eight manuscripts (late in date), with some enhancement from the Complutensiam Polyglot (a 16th century version containing the Old Testament in Hebrew, Latin, and Greek).
Further improvements were made during the following century, which ultimately resulted in the Textus Receptus (i.e., the “Received Text”). The Textus Receptus “ruled supreme” as the textual base for the Bible from the 16th century to the close of the 18th (Theological Propaeduetic, New York: Charles Scribner, 1916, pp. 166-67). Much has changed, however, in the past two centuries.

Here's what another wrote about Erasmus' work:

Typographical errors (attributed to the rush to complete the work) abounded in the published text. Erasmus also lacked a complete copy of the book of Revelation and was forced to translate the last six verses back into Greek from the Latin Vulgate in order to finish his edition. Erasmus adjusted the text in many places to correspond with readings found in the Vulgate, or as quoted in the Church Fathers; consequently, although the Textus Receptus is classified by scholars as a late Byzantine text, it differs in nearly two thousand readings from the standard form of that text-type, as represented by the "Majority Text" of Hodges and Farstad (Wallace 1989). The edition was a sell-out commercial success and was reprinted in 1519, with most—though not all—the typographical errors corrected.[6]

Note that the Textus Receptus was not much older than the KJV itself.

The NIV was based on what are believed to be older Greek manuscript copies of the original writings. It needs to be understood that there are very few discrepencies in the Old Testament between either of the translations. The Old Testament had already been codified by Jewish scribes before Jesus arrived. However, the New Testament had been rewritten and preserved as the Textus Receptus for many, many years and while it is believed to be a very correct 'translation', minus, of course, the errors noted above, the poring over some more recently found Greek documents since the translating of the KJV has shown that there are some places in the KJV that may not have been in the original manuscripts. The NIV attempts to correct this, but in places where there is a difference, an explanation is given. If you will turn in your NIV Scriptures, if you have one, you will find at the bottom of the page that it is explained that some later manuscripts have the declaration of the Ethiopian eunich that he believes that Jesus is the Son of God. The NIV's position is that the attestation cannot be positively proven to have been in the original manuscripts and is therefore possibly added by someone at a later date to make the point that this declaration is foundational to being baptized.

However, if there is any question concerning the theology of what must be believed in baptism, there are plenty of places that attest that we must believe that Jesus is the Son of God and that God raised him from the dead. The real issue here is whether it is true or not that the Eunich said these words to Phillip.

As to the issue that Zondervan publishing also publishes the Satanic bible, that is a bit misleading. Zondervan publishing is a strictly Christian publishing house. They were begun in 1930 and in 1973 obtained the rights to exclusive publication of the NIV translation of the bible. In 1988, Zondervan publishing was purchased by Harper Collins publishing and Harper Collins are the publishers of the Satanic bible. Harper Collins, in fact, publishes a lot of very distasteful books as regards Christian faith and belief and Zondervan has been, and continues to be, widely criticized for putting the desire for money to be made in becoming a part of Harper Collins before researching whether or not Harper Collins was a publishing house worthy of being trusted to print Christian works.

Unfortunately, the issue of what kinds of books do you guys print?, may never have come up in the corporate realm of the purchase of Zondervan. The Zondervan brothers probably saw this as a good stable platform with lots of money to keep the publishing works going and never even considered,or foresaw, that their good name would be tarnished in this way. Unfortunately, too, it's done and there isn't a whole lot that anyone can do short of going to Harper Collins and offering them a price that would entice them to sell the Zondervan division off. It should be noted that Harper Collins has allowed the Zondervan brand to remain under its own name as a way for Christians to continue to identify the brand as a Christian publishing house. However, some of the rumors running the mill now are that the 'new' translations of the NIV that are moving towards gender neutrality and a less condemning gospel have come about because of Harper Collins authority with the Zondervan brand.

I, for one, I'm troubled that the NIV is now being drug through the mud over these issues and even I refuse to make use of any of the newer translations of the NIV. I personally don't believe that if the Zondervan brothers were still the holders of the name and publishing authority of Zondervan publishing we would have these 'new' translations.

However, for believers, it is just more proof that satan will always and forever try to twist and torment God's word.

In Christ, Ted
 
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Rhamiel

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hell is an anglo sexon word that came from the name for a norse goddess

anyway, I do not normally use the KJV version
also, in the Lords prayer, is "for thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory" in the greek and hebrew?
I like the Douay-Rheims translation, it has the part about fasting and prayer, so does the NAB

I can understand not liking the NIV version, but really, some of the translators were sodomites?
but what about the KJV version, i am sure all the translators were not saints lol
 
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genestealerbroodlord

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Note that the passage in question on your youtube vid is in block parentheticals. Do you know what this means?

It is good to find these differences but just condemning a translation because it is different isn't of much value. How do we know that the one we are using to base our condemnation on isn't the one that's incorrect? What we want is the truth and so when we find situations such as these, the question is, which one is the truth?

However, for believers, it is just more proof that satan will always and forever try to twist and torment God's word.

In Christ, Ted
Yes, I looked it up. I didn't know before hand though.

I'm not sure if my bible is the NIV. Its called the Good News Bible, But it is published by HarperCollinsPublishers 2004 edition. I also have a KJV, But rarely read it. My Good News Bible is my daily one.

I totally get your meaning. We all know that Satan will do anything to twist the truth of Gods word.

hell is an anglo sexon word that came from the name for a norse goddess

anyway, I do not normally use the KJV version
also, in the Lords prayer, is "for thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory" in the greek and hebrew?
I like the Douay-Rheims translation, it has the part about fasting and prayer, so does the NAB

I can understand not liking the NIV version, but really, some of the translators were sodomites?
but what about the KJV version, i am sure all the translators were not saints lol
I really don't know to be honest. I always assumed all bibles were the same, just that the KJV was done in a time where people spoke differantly. I didn't know all about the stuff highlighted by miamited. Its amazing how little I actually know. I'm so glad I can come to sites like this and be taught. I'm very greatful to everyone who gives their time to help me.

I read that King James himself was a sodomite
I wouldn't know about that. It does appear that it was quite common in that society though, so who knows.
 
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Rhamiel

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a quote from wikipedia
"For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever and ever. Amen"
The doxology of the prayer is not contained in Luke's version, nor is it present in the earliest manuscripts of Matthew, representative of the Alexandrian text, but is present in the manuscripts representative of the Byzantine text.[25] The first known use of the doxology, in a less lengthy form ("for yours is the power and the glory forever"),[26] as a conclusion for the Lord's Prayer (in a version slightly different from that of Matthew) is in the Didache, 8:2. There are at least ten different versions of the doxology in early manuscripts of Matthew before it seems to have standardised.[specify] Jewish prayers at the time had doxological endings. The doxology may have been originally appended to the Lord's Prayer for use during congregational worship.[specify] If so, it could be based on 1 Chronicles 29:11. Most scholars do not consider it part of the original text of Matthew,[27][28] and modern translations do not include it, mentioning it only in footnotes. In Orthodox Christianity, a similar doxology is sung within the context of the Divine Liturgy. Following the last line of the prayer, the priest sings "For thine is the kingdom and the power and the glory, of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, now and ever and unto ages of ages". Latin Rite Roman Catholics, as well as some Lutherans,[29] do not use it when reciting the Lord's Prayer, but it has been included as an independent item, not as part of the Lord's Prayer, in the Mass. It is attached to the version of the Lord's Prayer used by most Protestants. A minority posit that the doxology was so important that early manuscripts of Matthew neglected it due to its obviousness,[citation needed] though several other quite obvious things are mentioned in the Gospels.
 
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miamited

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Hi all,

However, the real sin here, I think, is that people want to separate God's people based on how a few words are translated, not really that there is any difference in the intent or understanding of the whole of God's word.

I have several different translations which I use periodically for just such a thing as what this vid is talking about. By reading several translations and then doing just a small amount of research one can usually find out pretty precisely what the specific passage in question might be saying to our heart. But in all of the parts left out and parts included in all the various translations I find that not a one of them, that we consider accurate (specifically referring to the New World Translation), leaves out or includes anything that is of real value to the lost soul finding comfort and salvation in our Lord Jesus.

That the Lord's prayer does not end with, 'power and glory forever,' doesn't really change any of what we need to understand from the Lord's prayer. Asking for forgiveness, honoring God as our Father in heaven, seeking the coming of His Kingdom here on the earth, beseeching that He keep us from sin and temptation.

That the Ethiopian eunich may have agreed verbally in his trust in the Lord, doesn't negate the fact that obviously Peter saw his faith and led him to be baptized, just as we should be. I find it a much more compelling argument of what we need to verbally agree to for our salvation, and thus believer's baptism, in the book of Romans 10:9-10. That if you confess with your mouth Jesus is Lord and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, ye shall be saved. For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified and with your mouth that you confess and are saved.

Finally, when I acquiesce that God's word is true, I am not considering any modern translation going clear back to the Latin Vulgate or the Alexandrian writings. God's word is true in the original manuscripts written by those who first received the guiding of the Holy Spirit to write what they have written. The goal of any translation is to attempt to carry on to us, as best as we can humanly accomplish, the truths of those writings. It is those originals that I attest are true and complete and I must trust that the translations today, if done by godly men and women who are seeking only to honor God with their work, have done a satisfactory job in bringing the promises, hope and truth of God's word to me in a manner that is pleasing and acceptable to God. In a manner that will convict my spirit of the need for God's salvation and quite honestly, I find that reflected very well in pretty much all of the 'good' translations.

Rather than argue over one's choice of translation of God's word, I believe we would be much more obedient to God if we worked to insure others understand what it says to and for them.

God bless you all.
In Christ, Ted
 
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genestealerbroodlord

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Hi all,

Rather than argue over one's choice of translation of God's word, I believe we would be much more obedient to God if we worked to insure others understand what it says to and for them.

God bless you all.
In Christ, Ted
Hi Ted,

I totally agree with you. I brought this topic up expecting you guys to just say that its not true and to just do exactly what you said in your last post.
Understanding the history of why things were done in a certain way. I didn't know any of that before. I am very greatful that you and the others who posted, were willing to help teach me. I personally feel that that is what this forums main aim is. To strengthen us through knowledge and to help keep us on the straight and narrow path.

I can honestly say that I feel truly blessed to be able to interact with you all. Thank you.
 
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