Moving from:
http://www.christianforums.com/t869911&page=7
start with adam149's posting #64
read to mine at #68 where i wrote
1. i'm bringing it here and not to hermeneutics forum, frankly because i don't care at this point except for the historical Reformed viewpoints.
2. it is part of my current study on hermeneutics so i'd appreciate references so i can follow up on them.
3. what i wrote is actually an issue i brought up at the men's Bible study at church on _How to Study the Bible_ by John MacArthur taught by the Pastor . (dont take this as a recommendation for the book, i don't like it, but that is another discussion)
pg 8.
The Bible is infallible
The Bible, in its entirety, has no mistakes.
The Bible is inerrant
The Bible is not only infallible in total, but inerrant in its parts.
I believe he is quoting/paraphrasing someone, but i don't know who/whom.
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So, what does our confession say:
please note: our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof
it is my current viewpoint, which i am working on, that inerrant is 'club talk', in particular emerging from the genius of Warfield and appropriated by the Fundamentalists in their battles with classic Protestant liberalism in the 1920's. It is a technical term which attempts to fold a complex discussion into a single word and then to 'hold people's feet to the fire' and use it to separate the sides in an overly simplistic manner.
Can we try to flesh out the last 100 years or so of Reformed theology's use of the term? please....
---
post posting edit
research links:
a surprisingly interesting liberal one-person essay at:
http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Olympus/2961/inner1.htm
a google search string to follow:
http://www.google.com/search?q=The+...=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&client=googlet&start=10&sa=N
http://www.christianforums.com/t869911&page=7
start with adam149's posting #64
read to mine at #68 where i wrote
i beg to differ with you on the historicity of the English term inerrant.
Warfield is perhaps it's strongest defenders, although i wouldn't quibble if you thought the Hodge's. However before them the term is consistently infallible not inerrant. Since the term inerrant has become aligned with the "inerrancy of the parts" while "infalliblity of the whole" as in infallible in matters of faith and practice, there is a define difference between the terms as currently used.
i would be interested in pre-Warfield defenses of inerrancy that you are aware of, especially if they use infallible and inerrant in different ways.
it is not the topic of this thread however. perhaps we can take this aside to a new thread.
1. i'm bringing it here and not to hermeneutics forum, frankly because i don't care at this point except for the historical Reformed viewpoints.
2. it is part of my current study on hermeneutics so i'd appreciate references so i can follow up on them.
3. what i wrote is actually an issue i brought up at the men's Bible study at church on _How to Study the Bible_ by John MacArthur taught by the Pastor . (dont take this as a recommendation for the book, i don't like it, but that is another discussion)
pg 8.
The Bible is infallible
The Bible, in its entirety, has no mistakes.
The Bible is inerrant
The Bible is not only infallible in total, but inerrant in its parts.
I believe he is quoting/paraphrasing someone, but i don't know who/whom.
---
So, what does our confession say:
from: http://www.reformed.org/documents/wcf_with_proofs/indexf.htmlOf the Holy Scripture
I. Although the light of nature, and the works of creation and providence do so far manifest the goodness, wisdom, and power of God, as to leave men unexcusable;[1] yet are they not sufficient to give that knowledge of God, and of His will, which is necessary unto salvation.[2] Therefore it pleased the Lord, at sundry times, and in divers manners, to reveal Himself, and to declare that His will unto His Church;[3] and afterwards for the better preserving and propagating of the truth, and for the more sure establishment and comfort of the Church against the corruption of the flesh, and the malice of Satan and of the world, to commit the same wholly unto writing;[4] which makes the Holy Scripture to be most necessary;[5] those former ways of God's revealing His will unto His people being now ceased.[6]
...
V. We may be moved and induced by the testimony of the Church to an high and reverent esteem of the Holy Scripture.[10] And the heavenliness of the matter, the efficacy of the doctrine, the majesty of the style, the consent of all the parts, the scope of the whole (which is, to give all glory to God), the full discovery it makes of the only way of man's salvation, the many other incomparable excellencies, and the entire perfection thereof, are arguments whereby it does abundantly evidence itself to be the Word of God: yet notwithstanding, our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof, is from the inward work of the Holy Spirit bearing witness by and with the Word in our hearts.[11]
VI. The whole counsel of God concerning all things necessary for His own glory, man's salvation, faith and life, is either expressly set down in Scripture, or by good and necessary consequence may be deduced from Scripture: unto which nothing at any time is to be added, whether by new revelations of the Spirit, or traditions of men.[12] Nevertheless, we acknowledge the inward illumination of the Spirit of God to be necessary for the saving understanding of such things as are revealed in the Word:[13] and that there are some circumstances concerning the worship of God, and government of the Church, common to human actions and societies, which are to be ordered by the light of nature, and Christian prudence, according to the general rules of the Word, which are always to be observed.[14]
please note: our full persuasion and assurance of the infallible truth and divine authority thereof
it is my current viewpoint, which i am working on, that inerrant is 'club talk', in particular emerging from the genius of Warfield and appropriated by the Fundamentalists in their battles with classic Protestant liberalism in the 1920's. It is a technical term which attempts to fold a complex discussion into a single word and then to 'hold people's feet to the fire' and use it to separate the sides in an overly simplistic manner.
Can we try to flesh out the last 100 years or so of Reformed theology's use of the term? please....
---
post posting edit
research links:
a surprisingly interesting liberal one-person essay at:
http://www.geocities.com/Athens/Olympus/2961/inner1.htm
a google search string to follow:
http://www.google.com/search?q=The+...=en&lr=&ie=UTF-8&client=googlet&start=10&sa=N