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obtsueness isn't the issue. the issue is neither of you understand the context or focus of hebrews 11:31.Look, you're being purposely obtuse
obtsueness isn't the issue. the issue is neither of you understand the context or focus of hebrews 11:31.
You quoted it, but I interpreted it differently. I read it as everything it said and then a semi colon, a whole new sentence.. '; and whoever marries a woman who is divorced commits adultery.' Which is saying ;and whoever marries "a woman who is divorced' commits adultery, which is any woman who is divorced, "a" 'woman who is divorced' ". Are you sure you're correct?
where does it say she was commended for telling a lie.....or for being a harlot?
No, because that would mean that the second offense is adultery, and not fornication.
Again, that would make ongoing fornication impossible; it would have upgraded to ongoing adultery.
Sorry, I have understood that adultery is just one form of fornication. Fornication means all illegal ways of sex.
No, because then including adultery in Gal 5:19 along with fornication is redundant.
There is a distinction there that you caught. It does not get explained very often as to why.
Adultery was commonly seen as sex between two adult persons - a man and a married woman, or visa versa. At least one had to be married. It could be both, as well.
Fornication was in reference to the pagan cultic practice of ritual sex. Fornication in the pagan temples were commonplace in the Roman Empire. Remember, Paul was the apostle to Gentiles. He was dealing with believers coming out of paganism that was often times involved in the phallic cults of the day.
Because some do not understand what Paul was dealing with (being an apostle to Gentiles)? Some misconstrue and assume Paul disliked sex. Paul had a tough job on his hands... He was dealing with a highly perverse and raunchy culture. Its why we read about the young man in Corinth having sex with his mother.
Sex with temple prostitutes (fornication) was seen by many ancient cults as being a part of one's religious obligation.
Yes... that's what Paul faced with Gentiles. Paul grew up as a Roman citizen and was accustomed to the ways of Rome.
Porneia did not (at least always) mean that when the Biblical writers used it. However, yes -- it did have that meaning prior to that point.
Comparing every reference in the Bible to porneia will show you that in many cases, it cannot mean that.
But for an etymology of porneia, see "Porneia: The Making of a Christian Sexual Norm" by Klye Harper, 2011.
Excuse me, Blackhole... Why not give a synopsis of what Kyle Harper concluded? How can we have a dialog if I must order a book and then read it before I can respond?
My pastor was a dedicated Greek and Hebrew Scholar .. and an excellent historian... He went into deeper detail than I first gave.
Fornication was with temple prostitutes? Yes. Fornication. But, it involved porneia. Which would include sex with homosexual prostitutes, child prostitutes... and they even animals kept in the temple for the purpose of ritual sex for fulfilling their religious obligation.
If we use your interpretation, then: Adultery (if it's not with temple prostitutes etc.) is not sufficient cause for divorce, Matt 5:23
1Co 5:1 doesn't involve sex with prostitutes or on behalf of a false religion.
1Co 7:2 doesn't work with that interpretation. Marrying a woman wouldn't deal with fornication; after all, he'd already have that woman (sexually) whether he married her or not. If having her sexually before marriage isn't sinful, this can't be about sex with prostitutes, etc.
1Co 7:2 doesn't work with that interpretation. Marrying a woman wouldn't deal with fornication; after all, he'd already have that woman (sexually) whether he married her or not. If having her sexually before marriage isn't sinful, this can't be about sex with prostitutes, etc.
The New Covenant has nothing in writing to follow. Not one single word.This is mostly Old Testament teaching by Jesus. Not part of the New Covenant. Divorce is not an option for a believer in the NT.
No one answered this questionWhat really is sexual immorality: 'sexual intercourse' or 'making out' also? And how do you really know from the bible?
What really is sexual immorality: 'sexual intercourse' or 'making out' also? And how do you really know from the bible?
Who ever knows the right thing to do, and does not do that thing,No one answered this question
So you add to scripture by "winging it"? If it doesn't permit divorce (unforgiveness) do it anyway?The New Covenant has nothing in writing to follow. Not one single word.
What Does the Bible Say About New Covenant?
I believe we often view things from a carnal /earthly /temporary perspective . In the resurrection they neither marry nor are given in marriage but are like unto the angels . If we have have one Father ( as I believe we do ) then in eternity we will all be little children ..brothers and sisters . No carnal desires but a pure love which has nothing to do with sex . Love in this way . Pray for a spouse who has abandoned you or divorced you for love is eternal ...are you allowed to have a new boyfriend/girlfriend? According to the Bible I know you can't re-marry.
Matthew 5:31-32
It has been said, 'Anyone who divorces his wife must give her a certificate of divorce. But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for marital unfaithfulness, causes her to become an adulteress, and anyone who marries the divorced woman commits adultery.
The New Covenant has nothing in writing to follow. Not one single word.
What Does the Bible Say About New Covenant?
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