Hi,
I've heard an argument that if Mary was sinless/immaculately conceived, then Mary could have died on the cross for our sins instead of Christ.
Now, I don't believe this (sounds blasphemous by the way), but how should I answer it?
I have been thinking, that since sin entered the world through Adam (Rom. 5:12), then it must be a man who dies for our sins, as the last Adam, which Jesus is.
I also read this today in the Catechism of The Catholic Church:
"[...] No man, not even the holiest, was ever able to take on himself the sins of all men and offer himself as a sacrifice for all. The existence in Christ of the divine person of the Son, who at once surpasses and embraces all human persons, and constitutes himself as the Head of all mankind, makes possible his redemptive sacrifice for all." (CCC, 616).
Mary's person wasn't divine, thus couldn't die for our sins on the cross.
I've heard an argument that if Mary was sinless/immaculately conceived, then Mary could have died on the cross for our sins instead of Christ.
Now, I don't believe this (sounds blasphemous by the way), but how should I answer it?
I have been thinking, that since sin entered the world through Adam (Rom. 5:12), then it must be a man who dies for our sins, as the last Adam, which Jesus is.
I also read this today in the Catechism of The Catholic Church:
"[...] No man, not even the holiest, was ever able to take on himself the sins of all men and offer himself as a sacrifice for all. The existence in Christ of the divine person of the Son, who at once surpasses and embraces all human persons, and constitutes himself as the Head of all mankind, makes possible his redemptive sacrifice for all." (CCC, 616).
Mary's person wasn't divine, thus couldn't die for our sins on the cross.