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I don't get it.

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patriot91

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I was always opposed to homosexuality, believing it to be a sin and indeed curable and forgivable. I knew it was wrong because it just wasn't the natural way of things, and there is further information about it concerning sexual immorality in the book of Leviticus, but there something I don't understand.

People say some of ancient Jewish law doesn't apply to Christians today (I can see why, some of it sounds absurd to me), but some does. How can we differentiate between what rules we need to follow, and the ones that are only for Jews? :confused:
 

LamorakDesGalis

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We can bring out the principles of the law to apply to today. Principles go beyond the specifics. For example in 1 Corinthians 9:9-10 Paul quoted a text from Deuteronomy 25:4 to apply to ministers preaching the gospel:

9 For it is written in the law of Moses, "Do not muzzle an ox while it is treading out the grain." God is not concerned here about oxen, is he? 10 Or is he not surely speaking for our benefit? It was written for us, because the one plowing and threshing ought to work in hope of enjoying the harvest...14 In the same way the Lord commanded those who proclaim the gospel to receive their living by the gospel.

Likewise, after understanding the text and context, we can discover further principles to apply to our lives.

Lamorak Des Galis
 
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patriot91

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LamorakDesGalis said:
We can bring out the principles of the law to apply to today. Principles go beyond the specifics. For example in 1 Corinthians 9:9-10 Paul quoted a text from Deuteronomy 25:4 to apply to ministers preaching the gospel:

9 For it is written in the law of Moses, "Do not muzzle an ox while it is treading out the grain." God is not concerned here about oxen, is he? 10 Or is he not surely speaking for our benefit? It was written for us, because the one plowing and threshing ought to work in hope of enjoying the harvest...14 In the same way the Lord commanded those who proclaim the gospel to receive their living by the gospel.

Likewise, after understanding the text and context, we can discover further principles to apply to our lives.

Lamorak Des Galis
Thank you.
 
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JohnR7

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patriot91 said:
People say some of ancient Jewish law doesn't apply to Christians today (I can see why, some of it sounds absurd to me), but some does. How can we differentiate between what rules we need to follow, and the ones that are only for Jews? :confused:
That is really very easy. There were laws that pertained to the Temple in Jerusalem. The Temple is not there, so it is not possible to observe those laws. At least not until they rebuild the temple.

However, some of those laws do apply to us today. For example when I was looking for a wife I studied the laws that talk about the Priest in Hebrew times looking for a wife. Peter said we are all called to the Priesthood.

Even though we do not follow the observations in the Temple. We should be able to explain their meaning. Their whole purpose was an object lesson anyways. A good understanding of the Temple helps us to understand what it means to be a Christian today.

Of course they missed the boat when it came to learning the lession. They thought it was enough to sacrifice an animal and that was all they needed to do. There was a lesson in all of that for them and the missed the lesson that God had for them.

1 Peter 2:5
you also, as living stones, are being built up a spiritual house, a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.
 
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heymikey80

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patriot91 said:
I was always opposed to homosexuality, believing it to be a sin and indeed curable and forgivable. I knew it was wrong because it just wasn't the natural way of things, and there is further information about it concerning sexual immorality in the book of Leviticus, but there something I don't understand.

People say some of ancient Jewish law doesn't apply to Christians today (I can see why, some of it sounds absurd to me), but some does. How can we differentiate between what rules we need to follow, and the ones that are only for Jews? :confused:
Yes, some people assert that the Mosaic Law is no longer applicable, being in a prior dispensation.

I don't get it either.

The Mosaic Law was given for multiple purposes, though, and some of those purposes are fulfilled, while other purposes are not. You hit the nail on the head: creational purposes, those upholding the right organization of creation, are still applicable. And so all forms of sexual immorality are still wrong -- from homosexuality to looking on a woman with lust who's not your wife.

The Mosaic Law is fine to study for its equity and morality.

Those parts that "sound absurd" in the Law ... just a thought, not a sermon! ... take a close look at them, muse and meditate on what their goal was. If that goal were improving the moral state of the people, then you've got your answer what part of that law was equitable.

On the other hand if the specific law exists to institute some part of the Israeli legal system, or if it's ceremonial, then it points to certain specifics which have been brought to fulfilment in Christ and His nation of believers.
 
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hlaltimus

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I was always opposed to homosexuality, believing it to be a sin and indeed curable and forgivable. I knew it was wrong because it just wasn't the natural way of things, and there is further information about it concerning sexual immorality in the book of Leviticus, but there something I don't understand.

People say some of ancient Jewish law doesn't apply to Christians today (I can see why, some of it sounds absurd to me), but some does. How can we differentiate between what rules we need to follow, and the ones that are only for Jews? :confused:
By any chance, is the real question that is being asked here, (And it's one that I have struggled with as well,) might be the question as to whether or not the Mosaic law's requirement for the the execution of homosexuals be continued to our day? Wow...I don't know. That law certainly was not a part of the ceremonial law which was clearly abrogated by the Apostles. The only thing I could dig up on this one was in the very act of forgiveness for the adulterous woman taken in John's gospel, Chapter 8. Jesus got her off the hook in a violation that was clearly a separate issue from the ceremonial law. There seems to be an emphasis placed upon mercy within the bounds of the New Testament while an emphasis upon strict justice is commonly found in the Old.
 
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Jerrysch

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I was always opposed to homosexuality, believing it to be a sin and indeed curable and forgivable. I knew it was wrong because it just wasn't the natural way of things, and there is further information about it concerning sexual immorality in the book of Leviticus, but there something I don't understand.

People say some of ancient Jewish law doesn't apply to Christians today (I can see why, some of it sounds absurd to me), but some does. How can we differentiate between what rules we need to follow, and the ones that are only for Jews? :confused:


Good question.. Tell me the events which lead up to the distruction of Sodom were these events happening before or after the giving of the law to Moses?
 
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Jerrysch

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By any chance, is the real question that is being asked here, (And it's one that I have struggled with as well,) might be the question as to whether or not the Mosaic law's requirement for the the execution of homosexuals be continued to our day? Wow...I don't know. That law certainly was not a part of the ceremonial law which was clearly abrogated by the Apostles. The only thing I could dig up on this one was in the very act of forgiveness for the adulterous woman taken in John's gospel, Chapter 8. Jesus got her off the hook in a violation that was clearly a separate issue from the ceremonial law. There seems to be an emphasis placed upon mercy within the bounds of the New Testament while an emphasis upon strict justice is commonly found in the Old.

It might seem to be the case, but it only seems that way. The comming of Messiah and the shedding of His blood fulfilled all of the Mosiac Law, not just 10 of these laws but all 613 of them. Yet that doesn't mean that "anything goes" there was sin prior to the 613 and, there is sin even now. This can be easilly shown by a examination of the Scriptures. Many years before the Mosiac Law came with it's "thou shalt not murder" Cain murdered Able, and God declared it sin. Years before the 613 Sodom was destroyed for sinning as well. In fact the world was flooded many years before the 613 wasn't it? What was sin before the 613 is still sin today, yet the 613 are not inoforce today, they aere given to a subset of humanity... the sons of Israel.
 
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heymikey80

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Good point.
... for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law. Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come. Romans 5:13-14

Fulfilment of the Mosaic Law means something different from simply obliterating it. Westminster for instance sees fulfilment as fulfilling the stipulations as a covenant of works. That's something intended only for Christ to do, and so that was fulfilled completely by Christ and no longer obligates His people. The Mosaic Law is also seen as intended to incorporate the people of Israel into a nation -- something it fulfilled, though there's controversy whether the Law should be used in the founding of nations --or Israel -- today. And the Mosaic Law had ceremonial signs intended to look forward to Christ's Atonement -- something fulfilled by the reality of Christ's Atonement.

There are points where the Law has not been fulfilled. It has a role in making people aware of sin. Paul himself said it -- the Law points to Christ (Rom 3:21). As it still performs this function, the function is not bankrupted. The Law also has a moral foundation, identifying sin. And so as a witness to sin and a summons to live a life to escape sin, the Law continues to apply.

As a result the Law continues as a discerner of righteous behavior, and will do so 'til the end of the world -- in which all of its work is fulfilled.
 
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gwynedd1

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I was always opposed to homosexuality, believing it to be a sin and indeed curable and forgivable. I knew it was wrong because it just wasn't the natural way of things, and there is further information about it concerning sexual immorality in the book of Leviticus, but there something I don't understand.

People say some of ancient Jewish law doesn't apply to Christians today (I can see why, some of it sounds absurd to me), but some does. How can we differentiate between what rules we need to follow, and the ones that are only for Jews? :confused:
Here was the opinion of the very early church.
Acts 5
19: Wherefore my sentence is, that we trouble not them, which from among the Gentiles are turned to God:
20: But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.
21: For Moses of old time hath in every city them that preach him, being read in the synagogues every sabbath day.
22: Then pleased it the apostles and elders, with the whole church, to send chosen men of their own company to Antioch with Paul and Barnabas; namely, Judas surnamed Barsabas, and Silas, chief men among the brethren:
23: And they wrote letters by them after this manner; The apostles and elders and brethren send greeting unto the brethren which are of the Gentiles in Antioch and Syria and Cilicia:
24: Forasmuch as we have heard, that certain which went out from us have troubled you with words, subverting your souls, saying, Ye must be circumcised, and keep the law: to whom we gave no such commandment:
25: It seemed good unto us, being assembled with one accord, to send chosen men unto you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul,
26: Men that have hazarded their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.
27: We have sent therefore Judas and Silas, who shall also tell you the same things by mouth.
28: For it seemed good to the Holy Ghost, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things;
29: That ye abstain from meats offered to idols, and from blood, and from things strangled, and from fornication: from which if ye keep yourselves, ye shall do well. Fare ye well.
Love in Christ
 
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