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How would you say it?

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Micaiah

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Lets assume that Genesis 1-2 was intended as a historical record. How would you change the record to make it more apparent this was the case and rule out the possibility it could be interpretted as a contemporary legend.

For example, what would you change to make it more apparent that:

The writing style was intended to be interpretted literally
God made the earth in six days
God created different kinds of animals and plants on the days indicated
Adam was created by God from the ground
Eve was created from Adam's rib
Satan used a snake to tempt Adam and Eve
etc
 

cweb255

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Um...is this mike on? (loud ringy noise that microphones make) Ah! Ok.ok.ok. Um, hello folks. My name is God and this, uh, is my little story MEANT TO BE TAKEN LITERALLY OR ELSE YOU ALL BURN IN HELL!

Hah! Fooled ya'! There is no hell and Genesis 1-2 is a redaction of two different metaphors finalized in the 800s BCE.
 
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Bushido216

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cweb255 said:
Um...is this mike on? (loud ringy noise that microphones make) Ah! Ok.ok.ok. Um, hello folks. My name is God and this, uh, is my little story MEANT TO BE TAKEN LITERALLY OR ELSE YOU ALL BURN IN HELL!

Hah! Fooled ya'! There is no hell and Genesis 1-2 is a redaction of two different metaphors finalized in the 800s BCE.
Are you sure you should be posting in this forum?
 
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gluadys

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Micaiah said:
Lets assume that Genesis 1-2 was intended as a historical record. How would you change the record to make it more apparent this was the case and rule out the possibility it could be interpretted as a contemporary legend.

For example, what would you change to make it more apparent that:

The writing style was intended to be interpretted literally
God made the earth in six days
God created different kinds of animals and plants on the days indicated
Adam was created by God from the ground
Eve was created from Adam's rib
Satan used a snake to tempt Adam and Eve
etc

It is not so much that Genesis would have to be written differently, but that creation would need to be changed to agree with it.
 
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Vance

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The problem with God intending a strictly historical and scientific record is that this was a genre that was not even around at the time, and not for a very long time. The ironic part is that if anyone HAD written strict history, it would not be read as such by the intended audience for a few thousand years!

But if I was going to write it as strict history and science, I would not use poetic language and structure as it is written now. Further, if the actual history included such events and characters which would normally indicate strong imagery, typology, allegory and metaphor (as the text does), I would present additional language to make sure the reader knows that these literary forms were not intended, but that that no matter HOW much they resemble such literary forms, these were the actual events. As it is, God just left us with the language that so strongly screams out non-literal.

Also, I wouldn't use as a name for my first man a word that equates with "Mankind".

Also, I would not provide two different creation accounts that seem to contradict each other in regards to the order of events. I would definitely clarify that point.

Also, I would point out that Cain married his sister, so that the plain reading would not be that there were others living at the time.

In short, I would write it in a way that so many people since the very beginning would not read it non-literally (which they have).

Of course, if God was concerned about having a uniform reading of every Scripture, He would have done a LOT of things differently. Since He didn't, such uniformity on those issues must not have been important.
 
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JAL

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Vance said:
The problem with God intending a strictly historical and scientific record is that this was a genre that was not even around at the time, and not for a very long time. The ironic part is that if anyone HAD written strict history, it would not be read as such by the intended audience for a few thousand years!

But if I was going to write it as strict history and science, I would not use poetic language and structure as it is written now. Further, if the actual history included such events and characters which would normally indicate strong imagery, typology, allegory and metaphor (as the text does), I would present additional language to make sure the reader knows that these literary forms were not intended, but that that no matter HOW much they resemble such literary forms, these were the actual events. As it is, God just left us with the language that so strongly screams out non-literal.

Also, I wouldn't use as a name for my first man a word that equates with "Mankind".

Also, I would not provide two different creation accounts that seem to contradict each other in regards to the order of events. I would definitely clarify that point.

Also, I would point out that Cain married his sister, so that the plain reading would not be that there were others living at the time.

In short, I would write it in a way that so many people since the very beginning would not read it non-literally (which they have).

Of course, if God was concerned about having a uniform reading of every Scripture, He would have done a LOT of things differently. Since He didn't, such uniformity on those issues must not have been important.
I placed those words in boldface myself. Vance, when you write like this, it sounds a bit insulting to we literalists. This is what you seem to be stating.
(1) The text is OBVIOUSLY non-literal
(2) Therefore a literalist such as myself is either too illiterate to read it or too stupid to understand it.
If this is not what you intend to imply, I would ask that you clarify your meaning, for starters. I will post a follow up in a moment.
 
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JAL

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Vance,

I posed this challenge to you on another thread, not knowing you were away for the weekend. Here it is again. Texts which we need not take literally, such as fable and myths, are often marked by non-empirical realities, for example unicorns, which I cannot verify empirically. And yet I would imagine that you, as a Christian, believe in the following invisible, non-empirical realities. (1) God (2) Angels (3) Eternal life (4) miracles (5) Satan/demons (6) Human soul and/or spirit (7) animal souls (8) the heavenly city



Now if I asked you why you believe in these realities, I think you would reply, at least for some of them, “I believe in them because Scripture mentions them.”



Yet the same books of the Bible which mentions these realities ALSO mention Adam ad Eve. Now Adam and Eve are said to be people, and people are empirically verifiable every day. I see all kinds of people, but I never see the 8 items listed above. If anything, those 8 items sound like what you expect to hear about in a myth. When I am reading LITERAL HISTORY, on the other hand, I would expect to hear about people, whether Moses, Abraham, Noah, George Washington – and Adam/Eve. I even see snakes, and could imagine that God could make one talk. But I DON’T see the 8 items listed above, and yet you seem to believe in all 8 of them. Based on this contrast, I am almost tempted to conclude that Genesis is screaming “Literal! Literal! Literal!” whereas you insist that it is screaming Non-literal!



Please explain and justify your hermeneutic that takes the invisible as literal, but takes the visible as MYTH.

Now this is not a popularity contest, so I hope you don't mean to imply that we should agree with your hermeneutic just because, "Lot's of people do." I am interested in your REASONS.


 
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Micaiah

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Further, if the actual history included such events and characters which would normally indicate strong imagery, typology, allegory and metaphor (as the text does), I would present additional language to make sure the reader knows that these literary forms were not intended, but that that no matter HOW much they resemble such literary forms, these were the actual events.
In the same vein as JAL's post above, for which I am interested in seeing a response, please provide examples from Genesis 1-2 of the things you mention in this quote.
 
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JAL

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Please also consider the following challenge, Vance, which is related but yet of a different sort.

I’m not a YEC, but many YECs fall back on the “appearance of age” argument. For instance Adam and Eve were created as adult and thus with the appearance of age. In the same way, the universe could have the appearance of age for metaphorical reasons. The universe could be, for example, an artistic metaphor of God’s age and wisdom. In a vision, Daniel saw the Ancient of Days (i.e God) with hair as white as snow (Dan 7:9). The gray hair was a metaphor for His age (as though His hair ages with time!). Yet the text is literal, in my opinion, in the sense that God appeared to Daniel in such a physical form. This is art, not deceit, but many theistic evolutionists, and I think you included Vance, would say that the “appearance of age” in the universe would be deceit on God’s part. Are you theistic evolutionists being consistent, here? Your argument seems to be that God would never source material that could, if taken literally, indicate a false history. Yet that’s precisely how you describe Genesis – as material from God, that if taken literally, would indicate a false history! If you theistic evolutionists feel your position on Genesis is warranted, then it seems to me that the YECs are equally justified in their “appearance of age” argument.

My point is this. While you can perhaps come up with some objections to this parallelism suggested here, nonetheless it shows that the YEC’s position at large – and a literal Genesis in general - is not as “screamingly obviously wrong” as you would have us think. As far as literalism is concerned, at least, good arguments can be, and have been, voiced on both sides of the debate.


In your response, Vance, it would seem incumbent upon you to address both the biblical and the rationalistic evidence I have provided in support of the "appearance of age" arguement.
 
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JAL

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Well, Vance, you've had several days to catch up on the other thread (and your comments there indicate that you DID read the other thread). You have also had a couple of hours to view my same comments on this thread. Yet still no response?



This delay is interesting because you are probably this forum's foremost defender of non-literalism. If your position were so "screamingly obvious" as you suggested, it would not take you, given your expertise and 24-7 dedication, so long to respond. Thus this delay has proven my point whence there's no need for me to comment any further. In fact I may be leaving this forum permanently to pursue other interests, so I probably won't respond to further comments.



I only want to define my own literalism for the benefit of anyone who is unfamiliar with it. Christianity has arranged the books of the Bible such that the first set, up through Esther as I recall, consists of HISTORY. (Prophecy and poetry come later, and poetry is often evident from poetic stanza). Historical and theological books, in my opinion, by their very nature cry out for a predominantly literal interpretation. Further, God said at Num 12:6-8 that He speaks to Moses literally (hence we should take Moses' books literally) while speaking to ordinary prophets in visions encrypted in riddles. Hence prophetic visions (such as those found in Daniel and Revelation) are candidates for some degree of non-literalism. Also, Jesus used the word "like" to indicate when He was speaking in parables, "The kingdom of heaven is like a mustard seed." Otherwise Jesus and the gospels are pretty much historical and theological and thus literal in my view.



Since our 24-hour sun did not exist when Genesis opens, the six days/nights (mornings and evenings) were probably the result of Christ’s Face as Sun illuminating our entire galaxy, and thus could be of any duration (totaling 4 billion years if the fossil record is correct). He did this to establish a paradigm/calendar of resting on the Sabbath/seventh day. (Hebrews 4 suggests that Today is still God’s rest/seventh day). Currently I conjecture that modern man appeared 50,000 to 100,000 years ago (based on fossil evidence) but was not stamped with a conscience. Then on the sixth day, about 10,000 years ago, God hand-fashioned Adam and Eve from the dust of the earth, who were physiologically much like modern man but were stamped with a conscience. Thus Adam was the first man in the BIBLICAL sense of the term man (as God’s image).





 
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JAL

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Vance, still silence from you? Ok, I decided to briefly discuss some of the points made in your original post. Your statement as follows seems to classify as mythological all literature written at the time that Genesis was written:



Vance said:
[Literalistic historical writing] was not even around at the time, and not…for a few thousand years!
The entire OT and NT indicate Mosaic authorship of the Pentateuch. If all historical writing of that period were myth, I would have to take the entire Pentateuch as myth. (Please correct me if I am misunderstanding you).




You say, “If I were writing a literal Genesis I would do the following things:” (numbered by me from 1 to 4)



Vance said:
(1) I would write it in a way that so many people since the very beginning would not read it non-literally (which they have).
You make it sound as though most of the church took Genesis non-literally throughout history (which leaves me wondering why evolution became prominent only after Darwin). I get the opposite impression. For instance, Paul Seely wrote two articles demonstrating that until the Renaissance, ALL Jews and ALL Christians took Genesis 1:1-20 literally.http://www.christianforums.com/editpost.php?do=editpost&p=10525686#_edn1 Add to that, every official creed of the Protestant Reformation based original sin on a literal Adam. Catholicism still does so even today, as far as I know.




(2) I wouldn't use as a name for my first man a word that equates with "Mankind."
But that’s precisely the intentionality of the text, as I have indicated to you on other threads. Infants are born both (a) guilty and (b) stained only if Adam was the entire human race. As I have said, I follow the church father Tertullian in regarding everything as physical including God. After Adam fell, God removed most of his sin-tainted soul to suspended animation for apportionment to each later human embryo. Thus we are Adam, we are the same soul that chose the fruit even though we don’t remember it. This is the only way to explain how our souls are sin-tainted from birth, as I see it.




(3) I would point out that Cain married his sister, so that the plain reading would not be that there were others living at the time.
Your logic here seems to be, “Where Scripture is not plain, we are entitled to classify it as myth.” This is an interesting hermeneutic, given that Peter regarded Paul’s writings as hard to understand. BTW, Genesis can still be literal even if non-Adamic populations existed, because God could have merged some of this sin-stained Adamic soul with “modern man” (who apparently originated 50 to 100 thousand years ago). Thus there is no need to insist that Cain or anyone else married his sister. (BTW, this idea of a physical soul also solves other problems that I cannot delve into here).


(4) I would not provide two different creation accounts that seem to contradict each other in regards to the order of events. I would definitely clarify that point.
Here too the logic is, “Where Scripture is not plain, we can discard it as myth.” As you know, on another thread I provided a reconciliation of Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 after Lucaspa accused them of contradiction.
See the posts # 87-88, 90-94, and 102 on the following thread:


http://www.christianforums.com/t1140439-how-do-you-explain-the-miracles-and.html&page=2



Vance, admirably you want to reconcile the Bible with science to advance the gospel. There are two ways to reconcile them. (1) Demote some of the Bible to the status of myth. (2) Seek out a literal reading consonant with science. You prefer #1 whereas I prefer #2. Perhaps the Lord might want you to prefer #2? Have you considered this possibility? I know this would be a big change for you, but I’ve had to suffer changes too. I came in to this forum as a dedicated YEC and suffered conversion to OEC. If you become more of a literalist you could still hold on to evolution, if you like, coupled with a literal Adam and Eve.

http://www.christianforums.com/editpost.php?do=editpost&p=10525686#_ednref1Paul H. Seely, “The Firmament and the Water Above Part I: The Meaning of raqiaà in Gen 1:6-8,” Westminister Theological Journal, Vol 53:2 (1991), pp. 227-241;Paul H. Seely, “The Firmament and the Water Above Part II: The Meaning of ‘The Water above the Firmament’ in Gen 1:6-8,” Westminister Theological Journal, Vol 54:1 (1992), pp. 31-46
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
But that’s precisely the intentionality of the text, as I have indicated to you on other threads. Infants are born both (a) guilty and (b) stained only if Adam was the entire human race. As I have said, I follow the church father Tertullian in regarding everything as physical including God. After Adam fell, God removed most of his sin-tainted soul to suspended animation for apportionment to each later human embryo. Thus we are Adam, we are the same soul that chose the fruit even though we don’t remember it. This is the only way to explain how our souls are sin-tainted from birth, as I see it.

I don't know why Vance hasn't responded yet, but I assume he is busy with real life.

But let me add my two cents.

The problem with Tertullian's take on original sin is that it changes it from a spiritual status to a biological defect. That means it is reproduced in the genome. And it can mutate. Who is to say that it would not mutate into something different than original sin?

The equal problem with this is that it connects the inheritance of sin with sexual intercourse, a notion which has produced a shameful legacy of misogyny in the Church as well as unnecessary guilt about natural bodily functions that leads to despising bodily life, though God created it for good.

On both accounts we need to look at a non-sexual, non-genetic transmission of original sin, since a genetic transmission makes no sense, and, in terms of attaching guilt and shame to sexuality is even theologically suspect.


Your logic here seems to be, “Where Scripture is not plain, we are entitled to classify it as myth.” This is an interesting hermeneutic, given that Peter regarded Paul’s writings as hard to understand.


In the first place, "plain" =/="simple". Something can be difficult to understand and still not be metaphorical or mythological. By the same token, myth, legend, poetry, etc. can be simple and clear to the understanding. So this is a false dichotomy.


Here too the logic is, “Where Scripture is not plain, we can discard it as myth.”


And that is the difference between a literalist and a non-literalist. For the literalist myth is something to be discarded. For the non-literalist it is just as important and true a part of scripture as any other. It is not to be discarded.

As you know, on another thread I provided a reconciliation of Genesis 1 and Genesis 2 after Lucaspa accused them of contradiction.
See the posts # 87-88, 90-94, and 102 on the following thread:[/b]

And thereby confirmed the existence of contradiction. For where no contradiction exists, no reconciliation is necessary.


Vance, admirably you want to reconcile the Bible with science to advance the gospel. There are two ways to reconcile them. (1) Demote some of the Bible to the status of myth. (2) Seek out a literal reading consonant with science.


But Vance is not suggesting any demotion. You draw that conclusion because for you "myth" = "demotion". But that is only your personal evaluation. I don't consider myth to be an inferior way of communicating revelation and spiritual truth.

And as far as I can see, on the questions of the age of the earth and of evolution, there is no literal reading consonant with science.

If you become more of a literalist you could still hold on to evolution, if you like, coupled with a literal Adam and Eve.

Several TEs on this forum do believe in a literal Adam and Eve. I know herev does. I think Vance does too. I don't myself, but I agree that TE does not rule out a literal Adam&Eve.
 
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JAL

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gluadys said:
The problem with Tertullian's take on original sin is that it changes it from a spiritual status to a biological defect. That means it is reproduced in the genome. And it can mutate. Who is to say that it would not mutate into something different than original sin? The equal problem with this is that it connects the inheritance of sin with sexual intercourse, a notion which has produced a shameful legacy of misogyny in the Church as well as unnecessary guilt about natural bodily functions that leads to despising bodily life, though God created it for good. On both accounts we need to look at a non-sexual, non-genetic transmission of original sin, since a genetic transmission makes no sense, and, in terms of attaching guilt and shame to sexuality is even theologically suspect.
Who are you addressing here? You apparently haven’t read my post. I follow Tertullian in tangibility of soul, but the rest is my own formulation. I made it very clear that the soul is not passed down sexually/genetically (how could it be, since the parents would then lose their souls to the children?). Note carefully the phrase “suspended animation” in my post. Please don’t erect strawmen merely to have something to knock down. Instead, please address yourself to MY arguments. BTW, Millard J. Erickson and Donald Bloesch are two of the most prominent evangelical theologians in the world today. Bloesch is an immaterialist of sufficient intellectual integrity to admit that immaterialism has never explained the transmission of original sin. The Catholic Catechism admits the same. Guess how Erickson explains it? He falls back on a physical soul! My model offers a solution to a theological problem unsolved for 2000 years. Therefore I'm not going to entertain any patronizing responses.


In the first place, "plain" =/="simple". Something can be difficult to understand and still not be metaphorical or mythological. By the same token, myth, legend, poetry, etc. can be simple and clear to the understanding. So this is a false dichotomy.
Here too is a strawman that has nothing to do with my argument. You merely point out the obvious FACT that many difficult texts are definitely not myth (as though this constitutes an objection to my view when in fact it SUPPORTS everything I stated). Nor did I suggest that Vance relegates every difficult text to mythology. In fact the contrary was PART OF MY ARGUMENT against him. I argued that since he already takes all these difficult texts as literal, why does he use difficulty as a basis for mythologizing Genesis? Where is the consistency?




And that is the difference between a literalist and a non-literalist. For the literalist myth is something to be discarded. For the non-literalist it is just as important and true a part of scripture as any other. It is not to be discarded.
Somewhat true, but another strawman. The fact remains that mythologizing Genesis means discarding the historical events that seem to be recorded there. So even though your point it’s valid, let’s not get excessively tied up in semantics while failing to respond to the real MEAT of my arguments. But instead your next comment is the most disappointing of all – it’s worse than semantics, it’s actually polemics. You distort my usage of the word “reconciliation” as an admission of contradiction. (Rather interesting, since creationists who resort to such word games on this forum are immediately indicted with intellectual dishonesty). You allege that my use of the word “reconciliation”


confirmed the existence of contradiction. For where no contradiction exists, no reconciliation is necessary.
The human mind, for lack of knowledge and insight, ascribes false conflicts to the text. Thus the reconciliation takes place in the human mind, not in the text. Duh! How would you feel if a creationist resorted to such a silly word game to “refute” the theory of evolution?


But Vance is not suggesting any demotion. You draw that conclusion because for you "myth" = "demotion". But that is only your personal evaluation. I don't consider myth to be an inferior way of communicating revelation and spiritual truth.
Ok, no need for precise terminology in the Constitution and lawbooks – hey everyone, let’s just have a book of fables! Isn’t that just as good? But here again, you are still not focusing on the meat of my argument, namely that Vance needs to show himself HERMENEUTICALLY CONSISTENT in regarding Genesis as myth.



And as far as I can see, on the questions of the age of the earth and of evolution, there is no literal reading consonant with science.
Fine. You need to explain why. I’ve put forth this challenge on many threads with little response. I was beginning to think there IS no response. If you have one, I’d be glad to hear it. Show me why Genesis can’t be reconciled with science. (And please don’t say, “Genesis features the supernatural.” The whole Bible is supernatural.)


Several TEs on this forum do believe in a literal Adam and Eve. I know herev does. I think Vance does too. I don't myself, but I agree that TE does not rule out a literal Adam&Eve.
Irrelevant to my point. Read the other posts wheere Vance used language so strong that it makes literalists look like idiots. All I am asking him to do is to show himself logically and hermeneutically consistent in such insinuations. Is that unfair?
 
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gluadys

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JAL said:
Who are you addressing here? You apparently haven’t read my post. I follow Tertullian in tangibility of soul, but the rest is my own formulation. I made it very clear that the soul is not passed down sexually/genetically (how could it be, since the parents would then lose their souls to the children?). Note carefully the phrase “suspended animation” in my post.

Mea culpa. You are quite right. I read hastily and did not notice the nuances.

However, I would still disagree with both Tertullian and yourself.

My personal approach to the nature of the soul is derived from Gen. 2:7. As the creation of Adam is described here, "soul" is not to be identified as either physical or non-physical, but as the union of both. The "breath of life" is not the soul, but that which transforms the body in such as way that it becomes a living soul. The operative word is "become". Hence, it is not proper (though common) to speak of "having" a soul, but rather of "being" a soul. Just as it is not really proper (though common) to speak of "having" a body, but of "being" a body. And likewise of "being" a spirit/breath. We are souls because we are spirit-animated bodies.

Here too is a strawman that has nothing to do with my argument. You merely point out the obvious FACT that many difficult texts are definitely not myth (as though this constitutes an objection to my view when in fact it SUPPORTS everything I stated).

In the post I was responding to that was your argument:

JAL said:
Your logic here seems to be, “Where Scripture is not plain, we are entitled to classify it as myth.” This is an interesting hermeneutic, given that Peter regarded Paul’s writings as hard to understand.

I did not attempt a response to related ideas from your earlier posts.

Somewhat true, but another strawman. The fact remains that mythologizing Genesis means discarding the historical events that seem to be recorded there. So even though your point it’s valid, let’s not get excessively tied up in semantics while failing to respond to the real MEAT of my arguments.
Emphasis added

That IS the meat of your argument. That a mythological or allegorical or otherwise figurative interpretation of what you interpret as history (and note, that is ALSO an interpretation) is equivalent to discarding, demoting, demeaning, ignoring, "picking and choosing" scripture. That it is a tactic to render the scripture without force or authority, to weaken it to the point that it can be safely dropped out of sight. That is the whole foundation of the literalists' attack on non-literal interpretations of what they deem to be history.

And it is simply not true. Perhaps it is your position that only objective history can carry the authoritative voice of God. But it is not my position. So when you use words like "discard", "demote" etc. you are mis-representing my beliefs on this matter.

Debating whether or not a passage is "really" history or not is beside the point. We can agree to disagree on that. As far as I am concerned, you are quite free to interpret Adam & Eve literally if that is what makes sense to you. But don't claim it is the only right interpretation or that a non-literal interpretation is tantamount to denying the text as God's word.


The human mind, for lack of knowledge and insight, ascribes false conflicts to the text. Thus the reconciliation takes place in the human mind, not in the text.

When the conflicts are indeed false, and a matter of mis-understanding, this applies. But not every scriptural conflict is of this sort. The contradictions between the two creation stories are endemic to the text, not a figment of fallible interpretation.

Ok, no need for precise terminology in the Constitution and lawbooks – hey everyone, let’s just have a book of fables! Isn’t that just as good?

Red herring.


Show me why Genesis can’t be reconciled with science. (And please don’t say, “Genesis features the supernatural.” The whole Bible is supernatural.)

Genesis can be reconciled with science if it is not interpreted literally. It is only the literal interpretation of the text that contradicts science. Science has shown us that creation did not occur in only 6 days. It has shown us that neither chronology in Genesis reflects the actual order of the appearance of living species on earth. Hence, any reconciliation of science with Genesis must rely to some extent on non-literal interpretation.

Since you disavow YEC, you should be aware of that. For you, yourself, do not interpret the days of creation as simply 6 days.
 
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Micaiah

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That IS the meat of your argument. That a mythological or allegorical or otherwise figurative interpretation of what you interpret as history (and note, that is ALSO an interpretation) is equivalent to discarding, demoting, demeaning, ignoring, "picking and choosing" scripture. That it is a tactic to render the scripture without force or authority, to weaken it to the point that it can be safely dropped out of sight. That is the whole foundation of the literalists' attack on non-literal interpretations of what they deem to be history.


I do not read that into the post by JAL. He is simply stating a fact. To call Genesis a myth is to reject what was plainly intended as history. Those historical facts are important. A wrong method of interpretation will logically lead to a wrong understanding of Christian doctrines.

Debating whether or not a passage is "really" history or not is beside the point. We can agree to disagree on that. As far as I am concerned, you are quite free to interpret Adam & Eve literally if that is what makes sense to you. But don't claim it is the only right interpretation or that a non-literal interpretation is tantamount to denying the text as God's word.
Is it wrong to say something is wrong?
 
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gluadys

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Micaiah said:


I do not read that into the post by JAL. He is simply stating a fact. To call Genesis a myth is to reject what was plainly intended as history. Those historical facts are important. A wrong method of interpretation will logically lead to a wrong understanding of Christian doctrines.

LOL. To say Genesis 1-2 "was plainly intended as history" is itself a subjective interpretation and has no more justification than to say it "was plainly intended to be mythological".




Is it wrong to say something is wrong?

Without evidence that it is wrong, yes it is.
 
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