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How many Gospels ?

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dan p

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I believe that in Gal 2: 7-9 means what it says , that there is the gospel of the circumcision to Peter and the gospel of UNcircumcision given to Paul, and I count 2 . There is a lot of disagreement of 1+1=2. So how do you all handle Gal 3:8 ? And the scripture , forseeing that God would just the heathen through faith , PREACHED BEFORE THE GOSPEL UNTO ABRAHAM , saying in thee shall all nations be blessed.
 

RND

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I believe that in Gal 2: 7-9 means what it says , that there is the gospel of the circumcision to Peter and the gospel of UNcircumcision given to Paul, and I count 2 . There is a lot of disagreement of 1+1=2. So how do you all handle Gal 3:8 ? And the scripture , forseeing that God would just the heathen through faith , PREACHED BEFORE THE GOSPEL UNTO ABRAHAM , saying in thee shall all nations be blessed.

See Romans 4.

Abraham was counted as righteous because of his faith, not because he was circumcised. Abraham received the promises he received by faith. Those same promises, available to both Jew and Gentile are received by the same faith that Abraham had. BTW, Abraham was a Gentile when he received the promises of God so no matter who accepts God at his word has to accept that word by faith.

"Is this blessing pronounced only upon the circumcised, or also upon the uncircumcised? We say that faith was reckoned to Abraham as righteousness. How then was it reckoned to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised. He received circumcision as a sign or seal of the righteousness which he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised and who thus have righteousness reckoned to them, and likewise the father of the circumcised who are not merely circumcised but also follow the example of the faith which our father Abraham had before he was circumcised. The promise to Abraham and his descendants, that they should inherit the world, did not come through the law but through the righteousness of faith." - Romans 4:9-13 RSV

Galatians 3:8 is saying the same thing. The promise of faith in which all nations of the world would be blessed by Abraham's seed does not pertain to many, as in many seeds, but one....Jesus Christ. All the nations of the world are blessed by this seed, Jesus, not by many seeds.

Now the promises were made to Abraham and to his offspring. It does not say, "And to offsprings," referring to many; but, referring to one, "And to your offspring," which is Christ.
- Galatians 3:16 RSV
 
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Terral

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Hi Dan:

The absolute truths about the “Two Gospels” (my thread) for the “Two Churches” (my thread) are perhaps the most important topics of all for the members of Christ’s Body (1Cor. 12:27 = that's us) seeking to ‘rightly divide’ the word of truth (2Tim. 2:15) for Peter’s Kingdom “Bride” and Paul’s Mystery “Body of Christ” still in the world today. Those among you mixing these two gospel and two churches together are not even in the game . . .

I believe that in Gal 2: 7-9 means what it says , that there is the gospel of the circumcision to Peter and the gospel of UNcircumcision given to Paul, and I count 2.

Peter’s gospel ‘to the Circumcised’ is the “Gospel of the Kingdom” (Matt. 4:23, 9:35, etc. = #1 above) that Christ sent the Twelve out to preach in Matthew 10:5-7 to Israel ONLY. Many CF.com writers are completely ignorant to the fact that God sent Jesus Christ to ONLY the Lost Sheep of the House of ISRAEL.

“But He answered and said, "I was sent ONLY to the Lost Sheep of the House of Israel." Matthew 15:24.
Jesus Christ then sent Peter and the Twelve out preaching to Israel ONLY:

“These twelve Jesus sent out after instructing them: "DO NOT go in the way of the Gentiles, and DO NOT enter any city of the Samaritans; but rather go to the Lost Sheep of the House of Israel. And as you go, preach, saying, 'The kingdom of heaven is at hand.' Matthew 10:5-7.
The “Gospel of the Kingdom” is Peter’s gospel “to the Circumcised” that Paul is talking about in Galatians 2:7-9, as Paul is going up to Jerusalem to “submit the Gospel I preach among the Gentiles” AND in “fear of failure.” Gal. 2:2. However, Peter’s “Gospel of the Kingdom” is a good news message in ‘transition’ from the opening of the Four Gospels (Mark 1:14-15) where there is only “John’s Baptism” for the ‘forgiveness of sins’ (Mark 1:4-5, Luke 1:76-78), until the second and third baptisms (Acts 8:16-17, 19:5-6) are included starting at Pentecost. The addition of the baptism in the name of the Son ‘and’ the Holy Spirit (Matt. 28:19 = my thread) is the reason so many professing Christians really think that our ‘Body of Christ’ church started at Pentecost, when that is NOT the truth at all. The “Gospel of the Kingdom” was offered three times (diagram) from John the Baptist (spirit witness), Jesus Christ (blood witness) and now the Holy Spirit Helper (water witness) beginning at Pentecost for the gathering of “My church” (Matt. 16:18) as the Prophetic Kingdom “Bride” (John 3:29).

The difference is that Paul’s “Word of the Cross” (1Cor. 1:18) gospel message was given to him “through a revelation of Jesus Christ” (Gal. 1:11-12) that can ONLY come AFTER God raised Christ from the dead and AFTER his conversion in Acts 9! If you go back to Pentecost and look everything through very carefully, then you will see that Peter is addressing Israel ONLY while preaching his gospel “to the Circumcised.”

“But Peter, taking his stand with the eleven, raised his voice and declared to them: "Men of Judea and all you who live in Jerusalem, let this be known to you and give heed to my words.” Acts 2:14.

"Men of Israel, listen to these words: Jesus the Nazarene, a man attested to you by God with miracles and wonders and signs which God performed through Him in your midst, just as you yourselves know . . .”. Acts 2:22.

"Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made Him both Lord and Christ--this Jesus whom you crucified." Acts 2:36.
Those mixing the ‘Two Gospels’ together want everyone to believe the ‘proselytes’ (Acts 2:10) represent the “Gentiles” of Paul’s Mystery “Body of Christ” Church, when that also cannot be the truth. The reason is that these Jews would be defiled by coming into contact with any Gentiles (Acts 10:28), which is the very reason that Christ’s accusers did NOT enter the Praetorium when Christ was accused before the Gentiles (Jn 18:28). These ‘proselytes’ are converts to Judaism required to keep Mosaic Law like all the Jews everywhere (Matt. 5:17-19, 19:16-17). While Paul is the “Apostle of Gentiles” (Rom. 11:13), Hebrews, Peter, James, John and Jude never even address “you Gentiles” in the first person in any Kingdom Epistle bearing their collective names! Paul is teaching the Colossians about “this mystery among the Gentiles” and “Christ IN you,” but again Hebrews, Peter, John, James and Jude never even use the term “musterion” in any Kingdom Epistle bearing their collective names ‘and’ even our gospel (#2) is “according to the revelation of THE MYSTERY.” Romans 16:25.

The danger in mixing the “Two Gospels” of the NT together is that you must borrow the WORKS from the “Gospel of the Kingdom” for addition to ‘our gospel’ (2Cor. 4:3-4) that MUST be accepted by faith APART from works (Eph. 2:8-9) like we are justified by faith APART from works (Rom 4:4-6). Those blinded by their Denominationalism (2Thes. 2:7-12) just mix the doctrinal precepts teaching the “Two Gospels” together into their own abomination that God sent to NOBODY to run around yelling “one gospel” and “one church” without a single clue as to what they are even talking about. The ‘servants of righteousness’ serving their ‘angel of light’ (2Cor. 11:14-15) will be the very last ones to know they are distorting the ‘wisdom given him’ to 'their own destruction.' 2Peter 3:14-16.

There is a lot of disagreement of 1+1=2. So how do you all handle Gal 3:8? And the scripture , forseeing that God would just the heathen through faith , PREACHED BEFORE THE GOSPEL UNTO ABRAHAM , saying in thee shall all nations be blessed.

Go back and read the verse again that says,

“The Scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the good news beforehand to Abraham, saying, "All the nations will be blessed in you." Galatians 3:8.
Most everyone thinks ‘the gospel’ here is euaggelion (#2098) like we see in Romans 16:25 and other places throughout the New Testament, but that is not the truth at all. In fact, the Greek term used in Galatians 3:8 is not even a noun but is the verb proeuaggelizomai (#4283) used only here in Galatians 3:8. Paul is NOT talking about his “Gospel to the Uncircumcised” (#2) being preached to Abraham, as if God has already raised Christ from the dead way back in Genesis. Paul is merely saying that Scripture foresaw that God would justify the “Body of Christ” by faith APART from works and this good news was announced beforehand to Abraham in Genesis 12:

“And I will bless those who bless you, And the one who curses you I will curse. And in you all the families of the earth will be blessed." Genesis 12:3.
This means the ‘good news’ of the blessing is made known beforehand, even though the doctrinal precepts teaching Paul’s “Word of the Cross” Gospel message remained “Hidden IN GOD” (Eph. 3:9 = 1Cor 2:6-8) like every other aspect of “The Mystery” given to Paul through a revelation of Jesus Christ. We are still saved by God’s grace through faith apart from works having nothing to do with the Gospel of the Kingdom for Peter’s Kingdom ‘Bride.’ BTW, the 'eternal gospel' (Rev. 14:6) is preached from mid-heaven at the very END of the age. I am,

In Christ Jesus,

Terral
 
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RND

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Galatians 3:8

The word scripture refers to the Old Testament. Paul writes in a way where the Scripture is personified ("foreseeing"), but the intent is clear that the Scripture is being spoken of in terms of the Author. The One who inspired the Old Testament (Scripture) foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles through faith. This means that the doctrine of justification by faith is contained in the Old Testament (Psalm 130:3, 143:2; Exodus 34:7; Job 4:17, 9:2-3,29, 15:14, 25:4; Ecclesiastes 7:20), and is not something contained just in the New—if not directly, then at least indirectly by showing that we cannot justify ourselves in God's eyes. (God foretells of this Gentile justification in Isaiah 49:6, 22-23, 60.)


The phrase "would justify" is in the present indicative sense, which means that it is now, and at all times, God's one way of justification. Here it would better be translated as "justifies." God justifies through faith—He always has, and as long as the present order of things continues, He always will. There was never a time when a person could have been justified by their works or actions.


Faith in Christ is the means by which God would justify the heathens ("the nations"—the Gentiles), but that justification does not mean they were allowed to remain Gentiles (heathens) in a spiritual sense. Being justified does not mean we are told we have not done anything wrong. Being justified means we are brought into legal alignment with God and His law, so the sin-induced gulf between God and man can be overcome and the relationship can begin. The physical Gentiles are/were given the opportunity to repent (Acts 11:18), which coincides with justification, but even repentance means that a change in behavior (works) must be made. God saves us from our sins, not in our sins.
 
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Terral

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Hi RND:

The word scripture refers to the Old Testament. Paul writes in a way where the Scripture is personified ("foreseeing"), but the intent is clear that the Scripture is being spoken of in terms of the Author. The One who inspired the Old Testament (Scripture) foresaw that God would justify the Gentiles through faith.

We agree. Paul is saying that God knows what He is doing, as he is about to explain the ‘faith’ that was withheld (“before faith came” = Gal. 3:23) and the justification that is available “now that faith has come.” Galatians 3:25. Paul will use the Greek term “pistis” (faith) just one time in Galatians 1 (vs. 23) and just twice in Galatians 2 (16+20), but will transition here in Galatians 3 to use this vital term thirteen times in the first twenty six verses, or once in every other verse. We can contrast this with the Four Gospels as the word ‘faith’ is not used in the Gospel of John even once in all twenty one chapters. However, while ‘Scripture/God’ foresees that Gentiles would be justified by faith, that ‘faith’ is the ‘faith of Jesus’ (Rom. 3:26 = diagram) that God milled out for ‘believers’ in our gospel by sending His Son to Calvary. Therefore, we must place the dividing line between ‘before faith came’ AND ‘now that faith has come,’ not only for finding the correct location for this ‘faith’ in Scripture, but we must attach this ‘faith of Jesus’ to the very “gospel” that Paul is calling the “Gospel to the Uncircumcised.” Galatians 2:7. The reason is that this “faith comes by hearing the word concerning Christ” (Rom. 10:17) and that ‘word concerning Christ’ is Paul’s “Word of the Cross” (1Cor. 1:18) gospel message.

This means that the doctrine of justification by faith is contained in the Old Testament (Psalm 130:3, 143:2; Exodus 34:7; Job 4:17, 9:2-3,29, 15:14, 25:4; Ecclesiastes 7:20), and is not something contained just in the New

We definitely disagree here. While God/Scripture foresaw justification by faith apart from works (Rom. 4:4-6) this in NO WAY means that God ever intended for the sons of Israel to interpret the Old Testament in a way that allowed for salvation and justification and even redemption and glorification for those outside of Mosaic Law. Even Jesus Christ taught that eternal life was obtained by “keeping the commandments” (Matt. 19:16-17), as the Law remains for Israel until heaven and earth pass away. Matt. 5:17-19. While Paul ‘can’ go back into the Old Testament and show you “Grace Doctrine” enfolded within the verses for Abram, you needed his NT guidance for seeing ‘these things’ according to the “wisdom given him” (2Peter 3:14-16) for any understanding of what he is even talking about. Try handing the thirty nine OT books to a practicing Jew and ask ‘him’ to show you justification of Gentiles providing “citizenship in heaven” (Phil. 3:20) for becoming a “new creature” (2Cor. 5:16-17) part of a completely “New Creation” (Gal. 6:15) where believers in a gospel message are seated in the heavenly places IN Christ Jesus (Eph. 2:6). Then expect to see a big blank stare from a guy thinking you are out of your cotton picking mind. :0)

The fact is that our ability to go back into the OT for locating examples of “Grace Doctrine” for the members of Christ’s Body has everything to do with “Christ IN you” (Col. 1:27) where ‘we’ have the mind of Christ (1Cor. 2:16) giving Light to our spiritual eyes that places ‘us’ in the position of the Apostle Paul with an extreme advantage over everyone lacking the “Holy Spirit” (1Cor. 3:16, 6:19) in our mortal bodies. And how did Paul just say ‘we’ received that Holy Spirit? :0) We received the Holy Spirit by “hearing with faith” (Gal. 3:2) in the very moment that we received the “faith of Jesus” that must come for each and every believer in our gospel at the time he believes the “message of truth.” Eph. 1:13-14.

Our disagreement on this topic will be understood by carefully noting the differences between Absolute Truth (God's Infinite Realm), Eternal Truth (Christ's Word Realm) and in this case “Dispensational Truth” intended ‘only’ for the members/brethren IN Christ Jesus. Paul teaches that ‘our gospel is VEILED to those who are PERISHING.’ 2Cor. 4:3-4. Therefore, the ‘faith of Jesus’ never comes for those souls ‘and’ they cannot obtain the ‘mind of Christ’ and the natural man cannot accept these things (1Cor. 2:14), because they are foolishness to him. So the fact that ‘we’ can see these things clearly in the OT is of no benefit for those outside of Christ Jesus any more than they benefit Israel standing blindly (Rom. 11:25) on the sidelines inheriting the ‘spirit of stupor’ (Rom. 11:8).

. . . if not directly, then at least indirectly by showing that we* cannot justify ourselves in God's eyes. (God foretells of this Gentile justification in Isaiah 49:6, 22-23, 60.)

The determining term in your statement here is ‘we*’ as to whether you mean ‘human beings’ in general or ‘we’ the members of Christ’s Body; because obviously there is a big difference. Many among the Dispensationalists here are WAY ahead in understanding the various dispensations under God, but then they try to pass around the benefits of “Grace/Pauline Doctrine” for 'us' to just anyone they wish; because they fail to understand the VAST differences between Eternal Truth and Dispensational Truth for just ‘one’ particular administration/church. Many Dispy’s run around here thinking that because ‘we’ are justified by faith apart from works (Rom. 4:4-6) that NOBODY is justified by works at all; when that is simply not true. Paul will contradict you on this point throughout his Epistles:

“For all who have sinned without the Law will also perish without the Law, and all who have sinned under the Law will be judged by the Law; for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.” Romans 2:12-13.
If men cannot justify themselves before God (as you say above), then who are these ‘doers of the Law’ that ‘will be justified’ before God? :0) Paul is saying that ‘we’ (Body of Christ) cannot be justified for receiving the ‘righteousness OF GOD’ (Rom. 3:21-26, 10:1-4) that God Himself imputes upon the believers in our gospel. “Our” justification by faith apart from works is part of “Grace Doctrine” and “Dispensational Truth” for the members of “Christ’s Body” that cannot be assigned to the members of ANY other dispensation of angels, beasts of the field, cherubs, Gentiles, Jews or anyone else. The absolute fact remains that ‘somebody’ is going to become the ‘doer of the Law’ and those souls ‘will’ be justified by WORKS and not by faith alone. James teaches that the Kingdom “Bride” will be justified in this very way by using Abraham as his example, saying,

“But are you willing to recognize, you foolish fellow, that faith without works is useless? Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered up Isaac his son on the altar? You see that faith was working with his works, and as a result of the works, faith was perfected; and the Scripture was fulfilled which says, "And Abraham believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness,” and he was called the friend of God. You see that a man is justified BY WORKS and NOT by faith alone.” James 2:20-24.
Look at what just happened to your theory above. :0) James is addressing the ‘doers of the Law’ (see James 1:1 = 'twelve tribes') that Paul is talking about in Romans 2 above, because James is teaching “Kingdom Doctrine” to Kingdom Jews obeying the “Gospel of the Kingdom” having NOTHING to do with those of us already IN Christ Jesus. Remember that God is making Israel “Jealous” (Deut. 32:21, Rom. 10:19, 11:11) over their idolatry ‘and’ He is using “Christ’s BODY” part of this “Dispensation of God’s Grace” (Eph. 3:2) as the chosen people (Acts 15:14) for making Israel jealous. God is justifying ‘us’ (Body of Christ) by faith apart from works, but He is also justifying the doers of the Law by their ‘works’ in order to create ‘two’ different dispensations for teaching everyone else (heavenly authorities in Highest Heaven = Eph. 3:10) the most valuable lessons of all the ages. God will deal with ‘us’ (Body of Christ) through His Grace, while everyone else takes the LONG ROAD of washing their garments ENDLESSLY for ages and ages and ages in order to eventually obtain the same things that God has given ‘to us’ for free. :0) The short of a long story is that everyone called to God through the “Gospel of the Kingdom” will wash their own garments in the blood of the Lamb (see Rev. 7:14 again) in preparation for taking part in the “Marriage Supper of the Lamb” that includes the bride making ‘herself ready’ and the ‘righteous acts of the saints’ (See Rev. 19:7-8 again). These ‘one gospel’ and ‘one church’ mythologists running around here have NO CLUE about what they are even talking about, as they simply toss the Kingdom Bride and Grace Body together.

[Continued]
 
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Terral

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The phrase "would justify" is in the present indicative sense, which means that it is now, and at all times, God's one way of justification.

No RND! This is where your train is leaving the tracks to go straight over the cliff, because you are ignoring the ‘context’ that includes justification of ‘believers’ in our gospel and NOT just anyone you wish. God calls ‘some’ people like Peter, John and James to the Kingdom “Bride” with every intention of justifying ‘those people’ by works and not by faith alone. God also calls ‘some’ people like Paul, Barnabas and Titus to the Grace “Body of Christ,” so ‘they’ can be justified by faith apart from works for receiving the ‘faith of Jesus’ and the “righteousness OF GOD” right along with ‘our’ salvation by faith apart from works (Eph. 2:8-10). You are not licensed to pass ‘our’ justification to unbelieving Gentiles, Jews, Peter’s Kingdom Bride or ANYONE outside of “Christ Jesus” intended ONLY for those of us seated in those heavenly places with citizenship in heaven. In short, you are trying to transform “Dispensational Truth” for one particular ‘dispensation’ into Eternal Truth for every dispensation in direct defiance of ‘rightly dividing’ the word of truth (2Tim. 2:15) for the many different dispensations under God.

Here it would better be translated as "justifies." God justifies through faith—He always has, and as long as the present order of things continues, He always will. There was never a time when a person could have been justified by their works or actions.

We disagree and always will. :0) There is no provision in your theology for God justifying the ‘doers of the Law’ and those coming to God along a myriad of different avenues, until all saved souls eventually end up IN Christ Jesus. We should agree that everyone else coming by works and NOT by faith alone will become very “Jealous” by the very process were ‘we’ (Body of Christ) judge the world and even the angels (1Cor. 6:2-3 = diagram), but someone ‘will’ be justified by works just the same . . .

Faith in Christ is the means by which God would justify the heathens ("the nations"—the Gentiles), but that justification does not mean they were allowed to remain Gentiles (heathens) in a spiritual sense.

Having ‘faith’ in Jesus is one thing, but having ‘the faith of Jesus’ is another. The ‘faith’ that Paul is talking about here in Galatians 3 is the ‘faith of Jesus’ that has come for those obeying his “Gospel to the Uncircumcised” that disqualifies EVERYONE ELSE from the equation. There is no such thing as a Jew or Greek (Gentile) or a male of female “IN Christ Jesus” (Fig 2), because that is where your angel half and man half are married back together for obtaining ‘immortality’ (1Cor. 15:51-53) only anticipated for those ‘doers of the Law’ being justified by WORKS and not by faith alone. James 2:24.

Being justified does not mean we are told we have not done anything wrong. Being justified means we are brought into legal alignment with God and His law, so the sin-induced gulf between God and man can be overcome and the relationship can begin. The physical Gentiles are/were given the opportunity to repent (Acts 11:18), which coincides with justification, but even repentance means that a change in behavior (works) must be made. God saves us from our sins, not in our sins.

Your statements here are generated from mixing elements of Kingdom and Grace Doctrine together into manmade dogma that teaches neither by trying to teach both. “Our” justification for the “Body of Christ” must be obtained by obedience to the GOSPEL where God imputes believers with “His Righteousness” in the ‘faith to faith’ (Rom. 1:16-17) transaction between the preacher and the hearer of the Gospel itself. That is the ONLY way that the ‘faith of Jesus’ can come ‘by hearing’ in the first place. God justifying ‘us’ by faith apart from works has NOTHING to do with “God and His Law,” as if we are under Law and not under grace (see Rom. 6:14) again. Our advantage over all the other dispensations is that ‘we’ now have “Christ IN you” the new “inner man” (Rom 7:22, 2Cor. 4:16, Eph. 3:16) with instructions to follow the Spirit and not the flesh (see Gal. 3:3 for context). Galatians 5:16-18. There is no Greek term translated “repent” anywhere in the Pauline Epistles (NASB), as confession, repentance and baptism for the ‘forgiveness of sins’ (Mark 1:4-5) are doctrinal components of the “Gospel of the Kingdom” (Gospel #1) that includes WORKS and WORKS and more WORKS for the Kingdom “Bride” (Church #1) being justified by “works and NOT by faith alone.” James 2:24. Peter, John and James are to keep every facet of Mosaic Law, as James just said in James 2:10 for everyone called to God through the “Gospel of the Kingdom,” because God is dealing with Israel and the Kingdom Bride differently than those of us already,

IN Christ Jesus,

Terral
 
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RND

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Terral, did you notice this comment in my post, "There are many interesting commentaries out there to read?"

Did you bother to click the link Galatians 3:8?

As usual your wild vicissitudes and flailing about are falling on deaf ears. Your insistence that only your view is the right view is tiresome and boring.

The fact of the matter is simply this: All men are saved by and justified by the same grace and the same mercy that God has offered everyone through His Holy Spirit.

Read Hebrews 11 sometime.
 
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Terral

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Hi RND:

Terral, did you notice this comment in my post, "There are many interesting commentaries out there to read?"

Did you bother to click the link Galatians 3:8?

No. Those guys have just as much right to be wrong as RND ‘and’ they were offered up by you. :0) What you can expect to see in my posts are ‘my’ interpretations supported by God’s Living Word. 2Tim. 2:15.

As usual your wild vicissitudes and flailing about are falling on deaf ears. Your insistence that only your view is the right view is tiresome and boring.

What part of my work did RND ‘quote >>’ to prove wrong using Scripture? Oh yeah. Nothing. :0) Perhaps you could have learned about 'these things' (2Peter 3:14-16) concerning the "wisdom given him" (Paul), if you did not find the subject so very boring . . . Scripture can be very boring to many people whether they have the word of truth ‘rightly divided’ or not . . .

The fact of the matter is simply this: All men are saved by and justified by the same grace and the same mercy that God has offered everyone through His Holy Spirit.

Read Hebrews 11 sometime.

In other words, RND comes to the CF.com “Dispensationalism” Forum to pretend everyone is part of just one dispensation. :0) GL with that. I have read the NT hundreds of times and will never find myself agreeing with you or your one-dimensional commentators in a kabillion years. :0)

In Christ Jesus even now,

Terral
 
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RND

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Hi RND:



No. Those guys have just as much right to be wrong as RND ‘and’ they were offered up by you. :0) What you can expect to see in my posts are ‘my’ interpretations supported by God’s Living Word. 2Tim. 2:15.



What part of my work did RND ‘quote >>’ to prove wrong using Scripture? Oh yeah. Nothing. :0) Perhaps you could have learned about 'these things' (2Peter 3:14-16) concerning the "wisdom given him" (Paul), if you did not find the subject so very boring . . . Scripture can be very boring to many people whether they have the word of truth ‘rightly divided’ or not . . .



In other words, RND comes to the CF.com “Dispensationalism” Forum to pretend everyone is part of just one dispensation. :0) GL with that. I have read the NT hundreds of times and will never find myself agreeing with you or your one-dimensional commentators in a kabillion years. :0)

In Christ Jesus even now,

Terral

That's fine.
 
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yeshuasavedme

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Terral, did you notice this comment in my post, "There are many interesting commentaries out there to read?"

Did you bother to click the link Galatians 3:8?

As usual your wild vicissitudes and flailing about are falling on deaf ears. Your insistence that only your view is the right view is tiresome and boring.

The fact of the matter is simply this: All men are saved by and justified by the same grace and the same mercy that God has offered everyone through His Holy Spirit.

Read Hebrews 11 sometime.
Amen

Of course, though, MAD adherrents cannot believe Hebrews 11, for they are deceived into believing that it was not written to "them".
So sad!
They do not know the Scriptures nor the power of God. They err by believing MAD doctrine instead of the Word of God.
 
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RND

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Amen

Of course, though, MAD adherrents cannot believe Hebrews 11, for they are deceived into believing that it was not written to "them".
So sad!
They do not know the Scriptures nor the power of God. They err by believing MAD doctrine instead of the Word of God.

You know I actually hate myself for talking to Terral that way but sometimes his post can make you eyes bleed because they are so full of inconsistencies and misinterpretation that it is very frustrating.

You know yeshuasavedme the Bible is awful clear that the same Spirit that spoke to those in Noah's day is the same Spirit that speaks to us today and the raised Jesus from the tomb. That same Spirit spoke to Abraham, and Jacob, and Joseph, and Moses and.....you get the point praise God! God has one plan of salvation and that plan is the same for everyone.
 
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