CryptoLutheran
Friendly Neighborhood Spiderman
This makes a bit of sense I suppose. Although, if Christ emptied himself of Divine privilege, how was he able to do miracles? When Jesus was baptised and the Spirit descended on him, wouldn't that have restored his Divinity? Also, if Jesus "emptied himself" would that not have refuted his claims to Divinity? Either he was God when he walked this earth or he wasn't.
The first part of your question is addressed by the fact that Jesus was reliant upon His Father and the Spirit descended upon Him. His miracles would at that point not be a demonstration of His own divine power, but rather God working through Him.
The second part is answered by the fact that emptying Himself of divine "privilege" does not mean Divinity/Deity itself. Jesus never ceased to be God or be anything less than absolutely and fully and entirely Divine; only that He kenotically gave up the "privilege" of being God and exercising His Divinity.
A king who takes on the life of a peasant does not cease being of royal blood. That is, of course, a weak analogy, but I think it helps what I'm saying decently enough.
-CryptoLutheran
Upvote
0