Leviticus 17:11 talks about how the life of the flesh is in the blood.
Jesus had shed His blood for us because without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin (See: Hebrews 9:22).
God is love (1 John 4:8);
And Jesus is God (John 20:28) (
1 John 5:7 KJV) (John 1:1).
And the Scriptures say: “Greater love hath no man than this, that a man lay down his life for his friends.” (John 15:13).
Jesus loved us so much that He laid down his life for us.
It would be no different than a father pushing his son out of the way of a fast moving car whereby the father took the place for his son. God loved us so much that he gave his only begotten Son that whoever believes in Him shall not perish (John 3:16).
But why did Jesus have to die?
Without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin (Hebrews 9:22).
See, the wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23).
So Jesus needed to pay the price for our sins and to reconcile us back to God the Father.
Jesus needed to rise from the grave because without the resurrection, we will would remain dead forever in our sinful state without a resurrection of our own (i.e. without a new life or fresh start). The resurrection of Jesus makes it possible for our Lord to one day resurrect us by the power and likeness of His resurrection so that we can spend all eternity with Him in His beautiful kingdom.
As for your comment that the Lord died for you and not others:
Well, Calvinists believe that way. It's called Limited Atonement and it is not biblical. The Bible teaches Provisional Atonement.
Provisional Atonement (not "Limited Atonement").
(A 100% Work of God alone that can only be applied personally to an individual's life via by Justification and Sanctification).
This is Jesus paying the price for the sins of the entire world so as to offer mankind the free gift of salvation (if they so choose to accept it); Note: Christ's resurrection (to give us a new body not tainted by sin one day), and the ascension to the Father (after Christ telling Mary not to touch Him), and his entering the holy temple by his blood (to be our Heavenly High Priest) is also included in the Provisional Atonement, too. (For Provisional Atonement verses, see:
John 1:29,
1 John 2:2,
1 Timothy 2:6,
2 Corinthians 5:19,
Romans 5:6-8.).
In fact, in total, the Bible talks about 4 different aspects of salvation. If you are interested, you can check them out here:
The Four Aspects of Salvation.
May God bless you;
And I hope that what I said was helpful to you.
(1) I see the
HOW simpler than the explanation above.
God's righteous judgment is
EACH sin requires punishment,
which is eternity in hell. So Christ suffered the equivalent
of an eternity in hell for
EACH SIN of "His Sheep". Since
He did that
ALL of those specific sins were covered and
the elect had
EACH SIN paid by the Atonement and were
no longer obligated to pay for
ANY SIN they committed
during their life.
(2) Of course, from a practical matter that means each
of His Sheep required a
different Atonement. If a baby
or young person only committed 100 sins, each of those
was paid. If an old man committed 100,000 sins then his
Atonement was greater than the child since many more
sins were paid. I see
NOTHING in the Bible about Christ
paying for the sins of those who are "children of Satan"
or those who are
NOT "His Sheep". (more on that below)
(3) I do not see the Atonement as beginning at the cross
because we are taught that Christ would spend 3 days and
3 nights in the "heart of the earth".
Mat_12:40
For as Jonas was three days and three nights in
the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be
three
days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
Obviously, if Christ died on Friday and rose Sunday morning:
that would equal 3 days (Friday, Saturday and Sunday) but
it would only equal 2 nights (Friday night and Saturday night).
Therefore the only
Biblical explanation is the Atonement was
started in the Garden on Thursday night... which is indicated
when the Word says (a) Christ was suffering the "cup" of
God's Wrath in Thursday night (b) which resulted in Christ
being "in agony" and (c) this is shown as it were He sweat
"great drops of
blood falling down to the ground".
Luk 22:42-44
Saying, Father, if thou be willing,
remove this cup from me:
nevertheless not my will, but thine, be done. And there appeared
an angel unto him from heaven, strengthening him.
And being in
an agony he prayed more earnestly:
and his sweat was as it were
great drops of blood falling down to the ground.
So the Atonement was Christ becoming the "propitiation" for
"our" sins ("our" meaning the elect, in a "particular" Atonement).
So the Atonement (a) was for 3 days and 3 nights and (b) it paid
the penalty for
EACH SIN committed by His sheep... as Christ
became the "propitiation" for "our" (the elect's) sins.
1Jn 4:10
Herein is love, not that we loved God, but that He loved us,
and
sent his Son to be the propitiation for our sins.
So the HOW is pretty simple, Christ
PAID for each sin of all
of His sheep. The debt was
PAID and, therefore, there is
no more condemnation for those in Christ Jesus. For whom
He did foreknow He did "predestinate" to be conformed into
the image of Jesus. And whom He "predestinated" them He
also "called" and whom He "called", them He "justified" and
whom He "justified", them He also "glorified" [Rom 8:28-31]
Now, the question arises... does the Bible not say that Christ
PAID for the sins of the whole world? Of course, the answer
is yes... when we understand the phrase "whole world" means
BOTH Jew and Gentile (Jew + Gentile = whole world). Which
is why Christ spoke of "other sheep" besides the Jews only...
"whole world" cannot include those not "predestinated" or
those not "called" or those not "justified" or not "glorified"
1Jn 2:2
And he is the propitiation for our sins: and not for ours only,
but also for the sins of the whole world [both Jew and Gentile].
If we try to make "the whole world" mean everyone ever born
then we run into a few problems; (a) if a sin is
PAID then what
are those in the Hell paying for? The
SAME SIN already
PAID?
There is no indication in the Bible that any sin be paid
TWICE, so
that theory cannot stand and (b) if a sin is
PAID but
conditional
on the person "accepting" that payment then the sin was never
really
PAID, and man becomes his own savior by "choosing" to
be covered by the Atonement and that theory cannot stand or
(c) the
ONLY SIN that man pays is the
SINGLE SIN of never
"accepting" or "choosing" Christ as His Savior... and the Bible
teaches that
NO MAN can come to Christ unless the Father
"draws" him and
ALL MEN the Father draws "shall come".
So, from the practical standpoint, because of original sin, we all
are born spiritually DEAD and will not seek God [Rom 3:10-12],
No, not even one will seek God. So God "elects" who He will
"draw" before the foundation of the world - not by any good or
evil those men would commit but solely by "
Him that Calleth"
[Rom 9:11]. Christ
PAID the sins of His sheep and, at some
point in that man's life, God "draws" those elect unto Himself.
Therefore the Bible can (and does) teach that any (real) act
of repentance is the
RESULT (not the cause) of regeneration.
Making
GOD Sovereign and salvation by
Grace alone. Now,
the question becomes, did Christ "lighteth" every man that
ever came into the world?
Joh 1:9 That was the true Light, which lighteth every man
that cometh into the world.
And, of course, the answer is yes... even those who rejected
God and even those who never heard the Jewish or Christian
Gospel. The Bible is clear that men are made so that each of
us instinctively KNOWS there is a God [Rom 1:18-23] but, as
shown elsewhere in the Bible,
NO MAN will ever come to God,
unless God specifically "draws" them and
ALL MEN God draws
"shall come" to Christ - and He will lose
NONE of His sheep.
The
HOW of salvation is pretty simple: God "elects/predestinates"
those He will save, and Christ PAID for EACH of their particular sins,
and (at some point in their lives) God "draws/calls" them to Christ,
then "sanctifies", "justifies" and "glorifies" EACH of those elect.
Jim
.