@LoAmmi (wow. this is cool... didn't know how to ping ppl here... thx for that.)
To begin, like all of prophecy, there has to be a 'near fulfillment' event that proves the prophet, else the prophet would not be revered, and his work would be discarded. How does one speak to the distant future through a prophet else-wise? Some Christian eschatology (which I agree with) doesn't consider the prophecy fulfilled until it is
precisely fulfilled.
Antiochus seems to be that near fulfillment - On the surface, Daniel 9 provides hallmarks that could be reckoned from the decree to build Jerusalem through to Antiochus... But it was not fulfilled precisely - Antiochus did not die as predicted, and Israel did not win. Thus the prophecy is incomplete. There's more to it. Antiochus was a type.
Now, Yeshua claimed Daniel as a prophet, and said plainly that the 'abomination that causes desolation' was still to come, and that when his followers saw that happening, they were to flee immediately. That is why few Christians were caught in the Destruction of Jerusalem. That makes two iterations of the prophecy - but is it perfectly fulfilled even yet? I would say no. I would say it's final fulfillment is yet to come. Titus was but another type.
As to the text itself, copies exist in two places - The LLX (Septuagint) and the DSS (Dead Sea Scrolls), both at least contemporary with the events (c. 200BC), and referred to popularly in other writings from that time. Understand that 200 BC strains even Hebrew histories, as very little is extant prior to the rise of Pharisees about that time. The destruction of the Temple and the Library at Alexandria leave a gaping hole in near east history. That there are extant texts available at all speaks to their popularity - A popularity and distribution that would be highly unusual without age... The Qumran community having so many copies, considering their extremely insulated bend is a good example.
Early criticism is limited to Porphyry, whose only argument was similar to yours - a proto-platonist applying reason, assumes the work to be written after the event, simply because he does not believe in prophetic utterances. He gives no other reason.
Modern criticism fails to note Persian loan words, used correctly in the text, but totally destroyed by those translating the LXX - By the time of the LXX, Hebrew scholars in sophisticated Alexandria didn't have a clue what those words meant, but the original author did.
Another criticism is the use of Greek loan words. But those words were all musical instruments, and those musical instruments are now known to be referred to in Hebrew and Aramaic writings far before 200BC (those instruments do not offer ground in textual criticism)...
The Hebrew conforms to early style, contemporary with Ezekiel and others of that period, and the Aramaic seems older still.
And finally, the major criticism is the name of King Belshazzar. He has been absent from history - Even Herodotus made no mention of him in his lists of kings (and his is the penultimate source wrt ancient Media and Persia).
But recent finds in stone, and the very recent find of the Chronicles of Nebonidus tell the tale. Belshazzar, recipient of the 'writing on the wall', was indeed the son of Nebonidus, and coregent of the kingdom, with Nebonidus absent and retiring.
So to wit:
One would have to believe that the writer of Daniel was not only a brilliant and connected 'historian' to have so faithfully recorded the regional wars leading up to Antiochus, he would also have to know the three (and only three) Greek instruments with an history deep enough to have been present in Daniel's day by name, having a sure grip on arcane styles of both Hebrew and Aramaic, not to mention Persian so ancient and removed as to be wholly forgotten. And having all that, he would also have to have access to accurately use a name unremembered for centuries...
Kinda a lot to ask for, don't you think?