How are Prophecies evidence?

Wiliki said:

Hmm... ok then. I'm going into the second chapter, and I see no real evidence to back up the author's claims. Since obviously he is rather biased, I'd really love some sort of record that I can see, which backs up the Disciples being Martyrs. In addition, I was hoping, you know, for something during the time that the disciples lived, considering that really, I can't see this being much more than hearsay.

Click to expand...

Wiliki said:

Exactly. This isn't exactly a hard prophecy to be fulfilled. If, for some reason, it couldn't be fulfilled by a literal reading a couple thousand of years later, it's easy to manipulate the passage and find empires that would fit it then. The vagueness that I mentioned earlier shows that really, it doesn't MEAN anything. Unless of course, you can prove that there is a direct reference to the empires...

Click to expand...

Wiliki said:

How is it that you would consider prophecies written by previous writers, and then fulfilled by future writers to be evidence of anything? I'll give you a quick little example as to explain why this doesn't show ANYTHING.

NT Writer: Hmm... so let's see here... I'll have Jesus been a male! OH, and a couple passages in the OT suggest that the Messiah will ride on a donkey, so I'd better put that in.

What would stop the authors of the NT from altering Jesus' life, if he existed, to fit the prophecies. It's not as if the OT and the NT were written in conjunction, after all.

Click to expand...