bms,
I wrote:
Because I was explaining the "sin" potential of the "rape/non-rape" of women within the context of Cultures (the Biblical and Ours), your response is wholly Non Sequitur. What's Not getting through?
And you replied,
GodisLove,
The culture of the time didnt think it wicked for men to want sex with men, but it was pronounced wicked. Why are you more interested in the wicked culture when I am referring you to the righteousness of God.
First of all, I'm NOT "more interested in the wicked culture...." I was merely answering YOUR question. If the answer to YOUR question requires a look at the difference between ancient and modern cultures, why do you shy away from the answer?
In answer specifically to you claim:
The culture of the time didnt think it wicked for men to want sex with men, but it was pronounced wicked.
The "culture of the time" -- and yes, it DOES seem strange to me that you would build an argument around "culture" when you seem so eager to deny it's relevance, AND when you don't seem, otherwise, to care much for Biblical Anthropology -- Did Most Certainly consider "raping" (yeah,
That word, again) other men "Wicked." It was used as a means of humiliating strangers (who might be spies); of proving the Power one had over another.
This was certainly NOT a one-time deal for these men. Remember, they had already been judged fit for destruction (and for Other Contemptible things as well -- see Ezekiel 16:49 & 50),
before the angels entered the city.
Nor can you say, that these men were "homosexual" -- i.e. those who seek loving union with another of the same sex -- any more than you can make such a claim about the majority of same-sex rapists in our prisons today (as above,
STILL about dominance and humiliation). This was ALL the men of the city. And one has to account for the fact that there were children among the men, and they were certainly the product of heterosexual unions. [This goes as well for Judges 19.]