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Well, apparently Lesbians are in the clear with the book of Leviticus since it does not mention women with women.
Fornication The most well understood meaning of this word (throughout the Bible) is whoredom. Whether the person is married or isn't doesn't matter. Whether the person charges money for this 'fee' or does not, doesn't matter. The word still means the same.
Fornication The most well understood meaning of this word (throughout the Bible) is whoredom. Whether the person is married or isn't doesn't matter. Whether the person charges money for this 'fee' or does not, doesn't matter. The word still means the same.
OK, so it's a sin. It is just one in the list. The Bible says ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. There's no sense in beating people over the head with one particular sin when we all have sinned in all kinds of ways. Christians know usually when they are sinning or not. Either they will stop or not, repent or not.
You're not informing people of the truth, only about your opinionI am just informing people of the truth.
Actually, he is informing people about the truth. Even the Bible says that practing homosexuals and passive homosexual partners will not inherit the kingdom of God.You're not informing people of the truth, only about your opinion
In case there were actually people here who didn't know what to believe about homosexuality, I don't think your statement made the difference...
We all know perfectly well all these verses from the bible. Yet we disagree, and we will continue to disagree. Not because we don't agree that the bible does say this and that, but because we interpret it differently. The moment we accuse one another of "ignoring God's word" or something to that effect, we make any real debate completely impossible, and we also reveal a childish lack of respect. Just saying
What translation is that?Actually, he is informing people about the truth. Even the Bible says that practing homosexuals and passive homosexual partners will not inherit the kingdom of God.
1Co 6:9 ESV Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived: neither the sexually immoral, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor men who practice homosexuality,
1Co 6:10 ESV nor thieves, nor the greedy, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers will inherit the kingdom of God.
1Co 6:9 NET Do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived! The sexually immoral, idolaters, adulterers, passive homosexual partners, practicing homosexuals,
1Co 6:10 NET thieves, the greedy, drunkards, the verbally abusive, and swindlers will not inherit the kingdom of God.
this was my point.What translation is that?
What is the kingdom of God? Is it heaven?
Does this mean that if I'm "verbally abusive" even though I am saved, I won't go to heaven? If that's how people are interpreting thos verses, they should be shaking in their boots - it's not like homosexual people would be very different from most of us in that respect. In fact, if you're using those verses to say that people won't go to heaven for having homosexual sex, then you yourself won't go to heaven either if you happen to be greedy or verbally abusive or get drunk.
Or perhaps, as is usually the case, homosexual sex is a special sin, and God won't take the other sins on that list quite as seriously...
Generally when the Bible mentions men or mankind, it also means women. That is generally speaking though.
No the bible does not directly reference Homosexuality, or Beastiality; Bestiality should in no way be equated with Homosexuality. I am in a loving, committed, monogamist, sexual, spiritual, and same-species relationship with a man. This is a fact that Beastiality cannot boast for itself.Homosexuals and homosexualistic advocates claim that "homosexuality" isn't in the bible. But clearly in Matthew 15:10 Jesus is actually referring to homosexuality as something that defiles someone. Another thing is, there are other forms of sexual immorality that Jesus didn't directly mention, for example, beastiality! You won't find a direct references the word "beastiality" in the bible either. That is because it is either defined as fornication (sexual relations outside of a marriage between man and a woman) or defined as sexual immorality. Secondly, there were no homosexual marriages in Israel (notice how I highlighted this?) when the bible was written during the Old Testament or during New Testament writings.
We don't have to justify and rationalize it, because frankly the burden of proof lies with those Defending the Bible, (Notice I put this in bold, not highlighted).The fact that beastiality is not exactly mentioned in N.T. does not make beastialiaty without sin. Homosexual advocatists cannot justify and rationalize their behaviour as not sinning when they cannot explain why Jesus also didn't mention beastiality and other forms of sexual immorality except for fornication. The fact is, homosexuality is a sin as a result of these deducements:
Oh, please reference this, and pick which language you want to use, Greek, Latin, or Hebrew.1) Homosexuals advocate the word "homosexuality is not mentioned in the bible directly," but beastiality is also not mentioned in the new testament as well. Therefore, one can deduce using common sense that the greek word pornea would be the actual word used when referring to beastiality and both homosexuality and therefore, is a form of fornication.
See above.2) Homosexuality and beastiality are both forms of fornication:
a) Because no Israel homosexual marriages were not sanctioned lawfully or unlawfully in the country
b) Beastiality and homosexuality were sexual acts outside the union of a marriage between a man and a woman (within Israel)
c) The New Testament did not change laws around to allow homosexuals to get married nor did the new testament change any ideas about homosexuality
Hardly, you have succeeded in restating old arguments. Logical? Not really, since any reference to the bible violates no less than 9 logical fallacies. Rational? No circular and poorly at that, A is B is A is K?There you have it. Good, logical, rational proof that homosexuality is considered a sin.
Yes he really said it. But the truth is, a lot of people are saying it. Sad but true.Did this guy actually create this topic and just say THAT?
How many of these kind of bomb throwers are there in these forums? I won't be able to handle to many of them.
No the bible does not directly reference Homosexuality, or Beastiality; Bestiality should in no way be equated with Homosexuality.
That is not a good argument your making (homosexuality exists before christianity). The truth is, christianity is basically a fulfillment of the law (Jesus fulfills the law). Matthew 5:17Homosexuals have existed for much longer than Christianity, and just because you denied us our rights to marry then, as well as now, doesn't prove we are sinning.
Also I like how you said "when the bible was written during old testament or during new testament writings" insinuating you don't know time scales for the bible.
Oh, please reference this, and pick which language you want to use, Greek, Latin, or Hebrew.[/quote]I used greek for the definition of pornea with references to Hebrew Israeli culture, ethnics, politics, law, and the first relationship during God's creation which is the one between Adam and Eve. The bible is a beautiful painting of God's creation and I see no homosexual relations within it that is acceptable as being "moral".Hardly, you have succeeded in restating old arguments. Logical? Not really, since any reference to the bible violates no less than 9 logical fallacies. Rational? No circular and poorly at that, A is B is A is K?
Try again.
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