Homosexuality is a sin

[RMDY]

Homosexuality is a sin

 

[david_x]

Umm...
Not to be to harsh, but you need to try another take at that movie. You look like a deer caught in the headlights. You lose your point when you keep looking left then right then up then down. (and a tri-pod never hurt )

FYI: this should not have been posted here.

 

[RMDY]

How come we can't post videos?

Anyway, its the message what counts.


Here are the reasons:

Homosexuals and homosexualistic advocates claim that "homosexuality" isn't in the bible. But clearly in Matthew 15:10 Jesus is actually referring to homosexuality as something that defiles someone. Another thing is, there are other forms of sexual immorality that Jesus didn't directly mention, for example, beastiality! You won't find a direct references the word "beastiality" in the bible either. That is because it is either defined as fornication (sexual relations outside of a marriage between man and a woman) or defined as sexual immorality. Secondly, there were no homosexual marriages in Israel (notice how I highlighted this?) when the bible was written during the Old Testament or during New Testament writings.

The fact that beastiality is not exactly mentioned in N.T. does not make beastialiaty without sin. Homosexual advocatists cannot justify and rationalize their behaviour as not sinning when they cannot explain why Jesus also didn't mention beastiality and other forms of sexual immorality except for fornication. The fact is, homosexuality is a sin as a result of these deducements:

1) Homosexuals advocate the word "homosexuality is not mentioned in the bible directly," but beastiality is also not mentioned in the new testament as well. Therefore, one can deduce using common sense that the greek word pornea would be the actual word used when referring to beastiality and both homosexuality and therefore, is a form of fornication.

2) Homosexuality and beastiality are both forms of fornication:
a) Because no Israel homosexual marriages were not sanctioned lawfully or unlawfully in the country
b) Beastiality and homosexuality were sexual acts outside the union of a marriage between a man and a woman (within Israel)
c) The New Testament did not change laws around to allow homosexuals to get married nor did the new testament change any ideas about homosexuality


There you have it. Good, logical, rational proof that homosexuality is considered a sin.

 

[Tinker Grey]

I think what david_x was referring to is that there is a subforum specifically dedicated to this topic.

Ergo, it doesn't go here.

 

[JoeJoe83]

Is there anything about homosexuality in the NT?

If you are using the OT, does that mean every other rule in the OT is valid?

 

[RMDY]

Is there anything about homosexuality in the NT?

If you are using the OT, does that mean every other rule in the OT is valid?

I was using N.T. with references to Israel ethnic culture

 

[david_x]

I think what david_x was referring to is that there is a subforum specifically dedicated to this topic.

Ergo, it doesn't go here.

Don't ask how, but i forgot the word forum when i was writing that. HAHA

 

[FaithLikeARock]

Um...that's nice?

 

[holo]

Homosexuality is a sin

Ah, good thing you mentioned that. I had forgotten all about it.

 

[Maverick3000]

How come we can't post videos?

But clearly in Matthew 15:10 Jesus is actually referring to homosexuality as something that defiles someone.

Except he doesn't say remotely close to anything about it. Sexual immorality means so many different things depending on who you ask. Stating you clearly know he meant homosexuality as if you perfectly understand everything Jesus said is borderline blasphemy.

 

[HuntingMan]

Therefore, one can deduce using common sense that the greek word pornea would be the actual word used when referring to beastiality and both homosexuality and therefore, is a form of fornication.

Precisely.

Even if gay sex werent mentioned specifically, it would still be sin by default.
ALL sexual activity is 'fornication/Porneia' outside the one place it is created for, the lawful (before God) marriage of a man and a woman, whether its bestiality, two men, a man and woman who arent married to each other.
Homosexuality is 'sin' by default since they cannot be 'married' in Gods eyes.

 

[RMDY]

Except he doesn't say remotely close to anything about it. Sexual immorality means so many different things depending on who you ask. Stating you clearly know he meant homosexuality as if you perfectly understand everything Jesus said is borderline blasphemy.

Actually he does.

And "depending on who you ask" are you referring to whom?

Well duh, Jesus was referring to the Law, which convicts sin lawfully and morally. But he was talking about the moral part, as you can see, when he preaches about the evil in peoples hearts that defile them.

And what are you talking about borderline blasphamy? Are you talking about my beliefs that Jesus is God in the flesh or are you talking about his preachings. You must be mistaken.

1) Jesus is God in the flesh

2) Jesus was saying homosexuality is something that originates in the heart and defiles yourself especially when its put into action.

I don't understand how you don't get it. Its so obvious, especially how Jesus didn't directly refer to beastiality in his preachings and also because no homosexual marriages were lawfully allowed in Israel.

 

[Maverick3000]

Actually he does.

Prove it. And I mean real proof, and not some really liberal reading to support your POV. The fact that most Churches who are anti-homosexuality use this passage should probably tell you something.

And "depending on who you ask" are you referring to whom?

Sexual immorality is a very broad term. Sex before marriage is often regarded as immoral, rape is considered one of the most horrific crimes, and sexual rituals were a huge issue back during Jesus time (and a common subject in the Bible). Saying that sexual immorality refers to only one or two specific things is inane.

And what are you talking about borderline blasphamy? Are you talking about my beliefs that Jesus is God in the flesh or are you talking about his preachings. You must be mistaken.

Putting words into God's mouth IS blasphemy. There is no reason to think Jesus is condemning homosexuality specifically in that quote, you've added that part to fit your viewpoint.

 

[Joykins]

This is in the wrong forum but sexual orientation in and of itself cannot be sinful

 

[RMDY]

Putting words into God's mouth IS blasphemy. There is no reason to think Jesus is condemning homosexuality specifically in that quote, you've added that part to fit your viewpoint.

Wikipedia definition of blasphemy:
Blasphemy is the disrespectful use of the name of one or more gods.

According to dictionary.com:
blas·phe·my

//
–noun, plural -mies. 1.impious utterance or action concerning God or sacred things. 2.Judaism. a.an act of cursing or reviling God. b.pronunciation of the Tetragrammaton (YHVH) in the original, now forbidden manner instead of using a substitute pronunciation such as Adonai. 3.Theology. the crime of assuming to oneself the rights or qualities of God. 4.irreverent behavior toward anything held sacred, priceless, etc.: He uttered blasphemies against life itself.

So no, it is not blasphemy to "put words in gods mouth". That is not the definition. That would be called making a lie about what God said.

Prove it. And I mean real proof, and not some really liberal reading to support your POV. The fact that most Churches who are anti-homosexuality use this passage should probably tell you something.

Most churches are also anti-a-lot-things this world supports such as downloading music illegally, fornication, and sexual-oriented music. Call me an anti-homosexual bigot if you want because thats what I am. I won't say sorry or appologize to you for saying homosexuality is evil when homosexuality is not part of God's creation and is a sin.

Jesus really did refer to homosexuality as a form of pornea. Its so obvious when you also take into account biblical Israel's culture and ethics morally and lawfully. Its in their Law, its in their ethics, it is in their culture with that view and your telling me Jesus WASN't referring to homosexuality when he said pornea? What a strawman argument your trying to make! Your not taking their culture, ethics, morals and laws into acccount. It wasn't just religiously it was forbidden, it was lawfully and morally. Its in their law.


So don't give me this crap where I can't reference their law. I can because Paul said we wouldn't know what sin was if it weren't for their law. And since were talking about sexual immorality, and because Jesus used the term pornea, I want to give you references to their culture:

Leviticus 20,

You can't say this whole passage has to do with religious services because it doesn't. It goes on about various moral things Israel shouldn't be doing.

For example,

20:6 talks about not seeking mediums and fortune tellers! Well duh, its not saying this is only limited to a religious service...its saying not to do it at all!

20:9 once again, its talking about something no one should do: CURSING YOUR PARENTS. IT doesn't say its only limited to religious things: its saying to not curse your parents. ITs SO OBVIOUS!


20:10 - once again it talks about plain sexual immorality: adultery. God says to not do it!

20:12 it says to not have sex with your daughter in law! ITS CLEAR ITS MORALLY WRONG IN GODS EYES EVEN WITHOUT A LAW!


By the way, can you imagine if a moral law were thrown out of your country where stealing, murders, adulteries, and blasphamies are allowed? I guess no one needs to care about morales and the law because Jesus died for them right? WRONG! Your absolutely wrong if you can pick and choose what God doesn't like. Adulteries, sacrificing to molech are wrong in gods eyes for obvious reasons:

1) adultery is wrong because that is cheating on your husband/wife

2) sacrificing to molech is wrong because its cheating on God

So there you have it, good reasons why leviticus 20 matters in talking about morality here and sexual immorality, because, its not limited to religious services: its talking about things you shouldn't morally do! That is a good flippin' indication of how I can tell how Jesus is referring to pornea: because the law convicts sin and to find out sin (in reference to what Paul says) we can look at the law definition of pornea.

So, moving on:

20:13: right under the idea of having sex with your dauther in law as morally wrong, men having sex with men as if it were with a woman is morally wrong too! IT CLEARLY SAYS! Its right under the incest one. And plus it is a sexual activity, this since it is wrong it is a sin.
And guess what, I can tell it is morally wrong because it doesn't say it has to do with religious services, its right under two other sexual immoral things:

1) Having sex with your daughter-in-law
and the one below is

2) Marrying both the daughter and her mother. God calls this one shameful!

So your telling me this chapter of leviticus is referring to religious services only? I don't believe it! Why! BECAUSE IT DOESN"T EVEN MENTION RELIGIOUS SERVICES AND it talks about a whole variety of things Israel should not do because they are shameful and wrong in God's eyes.

So now fastforward to Jesus. When Jesus talked about sexual immorality, he was talking about shameful and evil stuff that comes out of the heart and defiles someone and can you imagine what he is talking about? Obviously stuff like marrying a daughter and her mother at the same time as well as having sex with a daughter-in-law. So how can you take homosexuality out of the picture and ignore it when its blantly right in the chapter talking about not just sexual immoral things, but evils relating to cheating on God and evils related to consulting devil services (mediums for example). You have got to be kidding me if you can just ignore this and ask me where is the proof. THIS IS PROOF YOU KNOW.

 

[Stinker]

Well, apparently Lesbians are in the clear with the book of Leviticus since it does not mention women with women.

 

[Stinker]

Fornication The most well understood meaning of this word (throughout the Bible) is whoredom. Whether the person is married or isn't doesn't matter. Whether the person charges money for this 'fee' or does not, doesn't matter. The word still means the same.

 

[Ave Maria]

Homosexual acts are clearly sinful but homosexual inclinations are not. That is what I believe and I believe that the Assemblies of God believes the same way.

 

[Ave Maria]

Well, apparently Lesbians are in the clear with the book of Leviticus since it does not mention women with women.

Generally when the Bible mentions men or mankind, it also means women. That is generally speaking though.

 

[mshupe1959]

OK, so it's a sin. It is just one in the list. The Bible says ALL have sinned and fall short of the glory of God. There's no sense in beating people over the head with one particular sin when we all have sinned in all kinds of ways. Christians know usually when they are sinning or not. Either they will stop or not, repent or not.