Help with John 10:34-35

[Carl Emerson]

31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?” 33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken— 36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me; 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.”

Jesus is quoting Psalm 82:1 "God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:

Firstly I love the phrase "scripture cannot be broken" this is not often quoted on CF.

Can someone comment in what broken means in the Greek please.

Do we 'break' the scripture if we take a figurative interpretation for example ?


Secondly can someone explain why Jesus is making reference to Psalm 82:1
This seems not to be a defence because He is God in the flesh and doesn't need one.
It also seems a poor defence when He knew the Jews were using a different meaning of the word God and referring to the one true God.

Comments on this passage most welcome.

 

[HTacianas]

31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?” 33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken— 36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me; 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.”

Jesus is quoting Psalm 82:1 "God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:

Firstly I love the phrase "scripture cannot be broken" this is not often quoted on CF.

Can someone comment in what broken means in the Greek please.

Do we 'break' the scripture if we take a figurative interpretation for example ?


Secondly can someone explain why Jesus is making reference to Psalm 82:1
This seems not to be a defence because He is God in the flesh and doesn't need one.
It also seems a poor defence when He knew the Jews were using a different meaning of the word God and referring to the one true God.

Comments on this passage most welcome.

"Broken" in that sense means contradicted. As if to say "it is written and you cannot argue against the written word".

 

[BobRyan]

Broken as in "scripture cannot be wrong".

 

[Unqualified]

There is an exact quote in the OT for what He said. God said it to judges who had the power of life and death. He called them gods. Jesus was a judge, He had the power. He’s taking a step up to godliness hoping they will go the rest of the way as He recalls many mighty works that no mere man could do. Still reasoning with them, He tells them that God has elevated men and elevated their minds to think of whom they are actually dealing with. Always the gentleman and wanting the Pharisees to come to theit own conclusion.

Then again he leaves the door open for them to refuse to believe with their mortal minds and have another evidence to kill Him.

 

[Clare73]

And one more time he shows they are guilty of what they are accusing him, blasphemy.

For in not believing the miracles by the Holy Spirit (Jn 10:38, Jn 5:36, Jn 14:11), they were blaspheming the Holy Spirit (Jn 10:36-38), the unforgivable sin.

 

[Paidiske]

Firstly I love the phrase "scripture cannot be broken" this is not often quoted on CF.

Can someone comment in what broken means in the Greek please.

Do we 'break' the scripture if we take a figurative interpretation for example ?

The verb is the infinitive form of the verb luo, and it means something like loose, unbind, disintegrate. I would say that it would capture Jesus' meaing to say that the Scriptures are in some sense binding, and the Jewish community which (claims to) order its life around them can't be unbound from the claims they make.

I don't think he is saying anything about how we interpret Scripture, but more saying that we can't reject, dismiss or cherry-pick.

Secondly can someone explain why Jesus is making reference to Psalm 82:1

It seems to me that he is trying to offer them a different perspective on their reasons for stoning him. Using familiar Scripture is more likely to engage with them and get them thinking, even if (to contemporary minds) the application is sketchy.

 

[eleos1954]

31 The Jews picked up stones again to stone him. 32 Jesus answered them, “I have shown you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you going to stone me?” 33 The Jews answered him, “It is not for a good work that we are going to stone you but for blasphemy, because you, being a man, make yourself God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods to whom the word of God came—and Scripture cannot be broken— 36 do you say of him whom the Father consecrated and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’? 37 If I am not doing the works of my Father, then do not believe me; 38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.”

Jesus is quoting Psalm 82:1 "God has taken his place in the divine council; in the midst of the gods he holds judgment:

Firstly I love the phrase "scripture cannot be broken" this is not often quoted on CF.

Can someone comment in what broken means in the Greek please.

Do we 'break' the scripture if we take a figurative interpretation for example ?


Secondly can someone explain why Jesus is making reference to Psalm 82:1
This seems not to be a defence because He is God in the flesh and doesn't need one.
It also seems a poor defence when He knew the Jews were using a different meaning of the word God and referring to the one true God.

Comments on this passage most welcome.

Greek Broken

Psalm 82

Psalm 82 is describing spiritual and human powers who then/now operate through our social institutions to pervert justice and oppress the poor and the innocent. They judge making themselves "gods" ..... judgement is reserved for the divine one true divine God.

Do we 'break' the scripture if we take a figurative interpretation for example ?

No ..... He often conveys truth by using figurative language/symbols .... to help us understand things more easily ... using things we can relate to.