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Help with a verse

brightlights

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Romans 11:32 reads: "For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all."

I know that Paul is not speaking of universal salvation here, but based on the context I really think that by "all men" Paul really means "all men" (and not just the Children of God). Could you help me to understand this verse please?
 

darrenbrett

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I studied Paul and his meaning in such "universalist" sounding passages. I think the key term in the verse you quoted is "may". God's desire is to have salvific mercy on all men- this doesn't necessitate them actually all being saved- because "all men" also have free will. There is a distinction between God's intention, which arises out of His merciful nature- and the end result- which is also very much affected by the choice of every individual person. That's my take for you.
 
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FOMWatts<><

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The verse has nothing to do with the "WILL" of man. Man is totally depraved, "ALL MEN" are totally depraved. This means that all men are bound by sin and the only thing there nature is free to do is evil and sin. Let's not forget about God's election here. Remember? God chooses some to display His wrath and other's to display His mercy. We are all DESERVING of the wrath, but in His great knowledge and judgement He chooses some (the ELECT) to show his mercy to. It has nothing to do with OUR WILL (which is not free), but ALL to do with God's election and HIS free will. Our choice to follow Christ is also to the credit of God. To each He gives a measure of faith, and some He hardens and makes the gospel a mystery...this is so His purpose and HIS will is fulfilled just as He says. Here is some scripture to support what I have said:

Romans 9:*

10Not only that, but Rebekah's children had one and the same father, our father Isaac. 11Yet, before the twins were born or had done anything good or bad–in order that God's purpose in election might stand: 12not by works but by him who calls–she was told, “The older will serve the younger.” 13Just as it is written: “Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated.”[\B]

There was nothing in Jacob or Esau's "will" that had anything to do with God's love or hate for them, it had to do with His purpose in election.

***14What then shall we say? Is God unjust? Not at all!

15For he says to Moses, “I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.” 16It does not, therefore, depend on man's desire or effort, but on God's mercy.[\U][\B]

Has NOTHING to do with man's DESIRE (wil, faith, etc.) or effort(works), but ALL to do with God's choice in who He shows His mercy to.

17For the Scripture says to Pharaoh: “I raised you up for this very purpose, that I might display my power in you and that my name might be proclaimed in all the earth.”

18Therefore God has mercy on whom he wants to have mercy, and he hardens whom he wants to harden.[\B]

Again, His choice not ours.

***19One of you will say to me: “Then why does God still blame us? For who resists his will?” 20But who are you, O man, to talk back to God? “Shall what is formed say to him who formed it, ‘Why did you make me like this?’ ” 21Does not the potter have the right to make out of the same lump of clay some pottery for noble purposes and some for common use?

***22What if God, choosing to show his wrath and make his power known, bore with great patience the objects of his wrath–prepared for destruction[\U]?[\B]

He even CREATED some for destruction, one must realize here that it isn't about US, it is about Him and HIS will, we just are blessed to be objects of His mercy, we are no better than those objects of destruction except that we have been given the faith to believe in Jesus Christ as our Savior and theredore wholly sanctified thoruhg His blood.

23What if he did this to make the riches of his glory known to the objects of his mercy, whom he prepared in advance for glory– 24even us, whom he also called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles?[\B]

That's US!!! We were prepared in advance for HEAVEN! YIPPPEEEE!

I hope that my post has shed a bit of light on what God meant through the Apostle Paul. Though we are ALL bound by sin, and deserce His wrath, He chooses to show His mercy to His Elect, chosen beforehand for glory. The other fella was right about the "may" in the verse. This was Paul's was of signifying that we do not know who God has chosen, therefore giving reason for us to continure in our evangelism and proclamation of the Gospel of the Christ. He may have mercy on us all, but since there is a hell we can be farely certain He didn't. God bless!

Peace,

FOMWatts<><
 
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brightlights

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I understand and agree with all of that, FOMWatts, but this verse says "For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all." It doesn't mention the elect. That is why I was confused. Can you explain that?
 
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HiredGoon

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In the preceding verses Paul describes how "you" (Gentile believers) who were once disobedient have now received mercy, and how Jews have now become disobedient so that they too may recieve mercy "as a result of God's mercy to you." In verse 32 Paul is saying that both Jews and Gentiles have been bound over to disobedience so that both groups MAY be shown mercy.
 
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darrenbrett

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When we mention "ELECTION" we must remember that God acts outside of time. The "will of man" does very much come into play. God's election does not mean He forces salvation on us- we must still choose to respond to His mercy. The Holy Spirit moves upon a heart but this does not guarantee that person will respond with saving faith. In other words, there is room both for the will of man and the election of God to come into play. It is only we who exist inside of time that find this to seem contradictory.
 
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BBAS 64

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darrenbrett said:
When we mention "ELECTION" we must remember that God acts outside of time..

Good Day, Darrenbrett

Welcome to CF! :wave:

I agree that God acts outside of our concept of time, but how does that change the meaing of the term "election'?



.
The "will of man" does very much come into play. God's election does not mean He forces salvation on us- we must still choose to respond to His mercy. .

Define the "will of man", I agree God does not force, in so far as we can not resist the power of God. You posit that God has mercy on all, how did you come to this?

.
The Holy Spirit moves upon a heart but this does not guarantee that person will respond with saving faith. In other words, there is room both for the will of man and the election of God to come into play. It is only we who exist inside of time that find this to seem contradictory.

Let me see if I understand you correctly here, God by his own free will determines that he will exersize his power by the means of the HS upon the heart of the one whom he created. In so doing He fails to achive the purpose for which the power was extended?

So when did God Know his purpose would not come to pass?

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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darrenbrett

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Hi Bill and everybody else,

I think you mis-understood my meaning. What I'm saying is that God's desire is to be able to extend mercy to all. However, only those who recieve Him are actually partakers in that mercy. Just because not all exercise their will in such a way as to recieve that gift, does not make God "unmerciful" to anyone; for He is "merciful and compassionate" and "has mercy on all He has made". Hope that clarifies things.

I was clarifying that election does not mean that God has a priori decided that some will not recieve His mercy. I'm saying that His foreknowledge combined with our decision regarding His free gift = election. Anything less than this would make our will irrelevant in the process.

I hope that also clarifies what I mean when I refer to "the will of man", I mean the will of a man to chose.
 
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BBAS 64

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darrenbrett said:
Hi Bill and everybody else,

I think you mis-understood my meaning. What I'm saying is that God's desire is to be able to extend mercy to all..

Good day, Darrenbrett

So, then you are saying that God wants to do some thing but is unable to do what he wants, thus lacking in abilty?

However, only those who recieve Him are actually partakers in that mercy..

Mercy there fore is some subjective thing in that it is not true outside of some secondary action on the part of man?

So when God said I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, he ment only "if" xy and z happens for that mercy to be true?

.
Just because not all exercise their will in such a way as to recieve that gift, does not make God "unmerciful" to anyone; for He is "merciful and compassionate" and "has mercy on all He has made". Hope that clarifies things..

Based on your statments above I do not see how you can belive God in and of himself is able to be "merciful" with out something else happening.

Where does Scripture say" has mercy on all He has made"?

I was clarifying that election does not mean that God has a priori decided that some will not recieve His mercy. I'm saying that His foreknowledge combined with our decision regarding His free gift = election. Anything less than this would make our will irrelevant in the process.

I hope that also clarifies what I mean when I refer to "the will of man", I mean the will of a man to chose.

Your understanding seems to be in contrast to what the word election means:

ekloge&#772;

Thayer Definition:

1) the act of picking out, choosing

1a) of the act of God’s free will by which before the foundation of the world he decreed his blessings to certain persons

1b) the decree made from choice by which he determined to bless certain persons through Christ by grace alone

2) a thing or person chosen

2a) of persons: God’s elect

Part of Speech: noun feminine

It is important that we use words in the way where thier meanings are consistantly applied to the idea that they repersent. When we fail to do so only confusion results.

So, what do you think has an impact of the will of man to chose the things he does?

Peace to u,

Bill
 
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Reformationist

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brightlights said:
Romans 11:32 reads: "For God has bound all men over to disobedience so that he may have mercy on them all."

I know that Paul is not speaking of universal salvation here, but based on the context I really think that by "all men" Paul really means "all men" (and not just the Children of God). Could you help me to understand this verse please?

I think part of the problem is your translation. Which on is it? None of the versions I personally rely on translate that passage as "God has bound all men..." Take a look at this passage in a few different translations:

Romans 11:32 (NKJV)
For God has committed them all to disobedience, that He might have mercy on all.

Romans 11:32 (ESV)
For God has consigned all to disobedience, that he may have mercy on all.

Personally, I think HiredGoon has given you the most accurate reply thus far. Good job HiredGoon. :thumbsup: :clap:

Blessings to you.

God bless
 
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darrenbrett

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Hi again Bill and others,

I honestly think you're doing some semantic gymnastics that lead you nowhere- in a pragmatic sense. You're asking questions akin to:
"Can God make a rock too big for Himself to lift?"

This is a fun idea linguistically and semantically, but it has no pragmatic value.

My point is indeed that God will not force His mercy on anyone- this is not because he cannot, but because He will not. He has made the universe in such a way that He respects the free will He has given to man. So all He is doing is being consistent within His nature. To say I'm putting limitations on what God can do is to miss the point.

Secondly, the passage about God having mercy on whom He chooses, when taken in context, is about God doing as He chooses-because He is God. That passage is not referring specifically to the salvation question. One of the things God has chosen to do is to give man free will to decide whether or not he will accept the free gift of salvation through the blood of Jesus. The alternative is a race of robots who are pre-programmed to the hilt. And Scripture just doesn't teach that.

I don't see how you can have a problem with my take on the issue; it's pretty standard. Unless of course you're an old-school/hardcore Calvinist. If so, I think we'll just have to agree to disagree. I personally think we go astray if we cling too strongly to either an Armenian or Calvinistic take on the issue. The truth is in between. Be blessed.
 
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darrenbrett said:
My point is indeed that God will not force His mercy on anyone- this is not because he cannot, but because He will not. He has made the universe in such a way that He respects the free will He has given to man. So all He is doing is being consistent within His nature. To say I'm putting limitations on what God can do is to miss the point.

darren, are you a reformed Christian? :scratch: Your profile says that you have been involved in a Vineyard ministry, which is not a reformed ministry, and that you currently attend an EV Free church. I looked up some information on EV Free churches and they are clearly not reformed. The problem with what you are contending, at least in this forum, is that it isn't based on biblically sound doctrine. No one who has knowledge of reformed doctrine would claim that God forces His mercy on anyone so that point of contention is rather moot. I regularly hear Christians claim that God "respects man's free will," as you have here. The problem with such a notion, at least from a reformed perspective, is that it fails to take into account many biblical teachings on the inherent nature and proclivity of man's "free will." The truth of unregenerate man is that his will is only as free as the bondage of his flesh. The ability to make choices is part and parcel of man's constituent nature. This was not lost in the Fall. What was lost in the Fall was any and all desire for good. So, the bottom line is, if God was to "respect our free will" then we would be in a sad state. Not only is our will not free in the autonomous sense that you are portraying, in its unregenerate state it is actually a willing slave to sin.

Secondly, the passage about God having mercy on whom He chooses, when taken in context, is about God doing as He chooses-because He is God. That passage is not referring specifically to the salvation question.

darren, this is not true. The context of Romans 9, starting in verse 6, is a direct reference to Paul's acknowledgement that God's chosen people, the Jews, have gone astray. Obviously this was necessary to fulfill prophecy regarding the promise being spread to the Gentiles. So, Paul tells us that the Jews, to whom pertain the riches of God's covenant, are in a state of willful rebellion. It grieves his soul to the point of wishing that he, himself, were cut off for their sakes. So, he goes on to assure his audience that this apparent disconnect doesn't mean that God's Word does not accomplish what it is intended to accomplish for it is not national affiliation that serves as the basis for our place in the covenant but, rather, the promise is according to God's purpose as shown in His act of sovereign election. So, the question that arises, that Paul preemptively addresses, is whether God's elective purpose is based on something about the individual. The example that Scripture gives us is about as specific as could be given. These humans were not just both Jews. They were brothers. They weren't just brothers. They were twin brothers. So, here we have two twin brothers. Jewish custom dictated that the blessings of the inheritance, ALL OF THEM, would pass to the eldest son and the younger would serve the older. God shows us that our position in the family hierarchy is not the basis for being chosen because He chose Jacob. So, the natural assumption is that Jacob was chosen because he was faithful to God when Esau was not and God forsaw that. The problem is that Scripture explicitly refutes that as well in verse 11 when it explains that they were chosen before they were born and before they had done any good or evil. Now, many misguided Christians understand this to mean simply that God's choice of Jacob was linearly before Jacob had done any good or evil but was based on God's foreknowledge of Jacob's works. The obvious problem with that view is that the passage explicitly states, "that the purpose of God according to election might stand, not of works but of Him who calls." Now, even if God's choice was based on works not yet committed it would still mean that it was based on works and the Bible could not say that it's "not of works." Some, unfortunatly, try to change the passage to imply that Paul is simply stating that "not of works" merely means, "not of works already done." Not only that destroy the entire explicit message of this passage, it clearly contradicts the flow of the chapter. Think about it. If God told us that He chose Jacob, and everyone else who ends up saved, based on His foreknowledge of what they would do, how would we respond? Well, clearly we'd say something like, "Well, that's fair. If God chooses us because He knows we will choose Him then that only makes sense." Was that the response the Paul, the teacher par exellance, anticipated to this claim that it is "not of works but of Him who calls?" Clearly not. He says, "What shall we say then? Is there unrighteousness with God? Certainly not!" If he meant that God chooses us based on His foreknowledge of our works then, clearly, no one would have the audacity to cry foul. Anyway, then we are told that it is God's perrogative on whom He dispenses His mercy and compassion and that His decision to do so isn't based on either the will of man nor his efforts. This statement about God's mercy is applicable to all of the grace He extends to us but, in this instance, the particular point being made is that God's sovereign election, which most certainly IS the catalyst for our salvation, is based solely on God's good pleasure and purpose. So, verse 15 most certainly is speaking of salvation though, as you acknowledge, His divine perrogative is not limited to matters of salvation.

One of the things God has chosen to do is to give man free will to decide whether or not he will accept the free gift of salvation through the blood of Jesus.

The problem is that you have cut the Fall of man, and the change it wrought in his constituant nature, completely out of the equation. God gave pre-Fall man a will that was not bound by a sinful nature. Adam chose on behalf of His progeny to disobey God and God imputed the guilt and results of sin to those he represented. One of the results is that man's nature has lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation. He is unable to convert himself or to prepare himself for conversion. Post-Fall man is born with a heart inclined toward sin. He is altogether averse from good and dead in sin to the extent that his inherent unresponsiveness is termed by Paul as a form of "death." God's efficacious purpose in saving those He has chosen before the foundations of the world is shown in His loving act of regeneration. What you purport is that the creation is sovereign and his decision, either for or against God, is the pivot point in his salvation. This is biblically inaccurate and highly anthropocentric. Salvation is something done TO us, not with us. It is not done against our will because in regeneration man's nature is changed and he is made most willing to this change.

The alternative is a race of robots who are pre-programmed to the hilt. And Scripture just doesn't teach that.

Of course it doesn't, and no one on this forum is purporting such a view. The "robot" label is the unfortunate side effect of those who wish to undermine reformed doctrine without really understanding it. The actual alternative to the idea that God "respects our free will" is that God's love for those who are actually aligned against Him is shown in eternity with election, accomplished in reality by His Son, and applied to us personally by the work of the Holy Spirit.

I don't see how you can have a problem with my take on the issue; it's pretty standard. Unless of course you're an old-school/hardcore Calvinist. If so, I think we'll just have to agree to disagree. I personally think we go astray if we cling too strongly to either an Armenian or Calvinistic take on the issue. The truth is in between. Be blessed.

You do understand that you're in the reformed forum, right? :scratch: :confused:

I pray that I am a old-school/hardcore Calvinist considering that Calvin's take on the Gospel was the most accurate of any theologian that God has graced us with.

God bless
 
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darrenbrett

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Bill,

You have yet to clarify whether or not you believe man has choice in the matter of recieving the gift of salvation. That is the crux of my entire point. You have written a rather long disertation regarding issues that were not my main point. So let me ask you plainly:

A.) Do you believe that man must exercise his will in accepting or rejecting God's offer of reconciliation through His Son, or not? If your answer is yes, then we are on the same page. If not, like I said earlier, we will have to agree to disagree.

P.S.- As I said before if you are a harcore Calvinist, then we definitely stand on different ground. I just don't think that position takes into account the fullness of Scripture.

P.P.S- I hope your zeal for theology doesn't cloud the fact that God's love is real and offered to all in an offering of two-way covenental relationship- (i.e.-"His desire is that all would come to salvation".

The OT is riddled with examples of how God, through His concessionary will, verses His primary will, worked with human beings who were expressing their own will. An example would be when God allowed Israel to have kings even though God's initial desire was that He would be their sole Kingly relationship.
 
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darrenbrett

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Bill, by the way, no I didn't realize I was in a "reformed" forum. But to be honest, that doesn't matter to me either way. One must still account for all of Scripture- if one is a Christian. So I hope you can tolerate a perspective that might differ from your own.
 
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darrenbrett

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Hi again Bill and other reformers. After re-reading your last post I see you have answered my question- from a fully-reformed perspective. I'm glad I stumbled on this forum- unawares. It's made for stimulating dialogue. Clearly, you are a refomer and I am not. Just wanted to clarify that. Be blessed though my brother. Shalom.

P.S.- We can keep dialoging if you want- this is fun; even if I do find your perspective a little-- umm--peculiar. Peace.
 
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darrenbrett said:
Hi again Bill and other reformers.

Hello. :)

I'm glad I stumbled on this forum- unawares.

We're glad too.

It's made for stimulating dialogue.

I agree.

Clearly, you are a refomer and I am not.

Well, that clears a few things up. ;)

Be blessed though my brother. Shalom.

Same to you darren.

P.S.- We can keep dialoging if you want- this is fun; even if I do find your perspective a little-- umm--peculiar. Peace.

Sounds good to me.

Any chance you feel like addressing my post?

Thanks,
God bless
 
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