Ok, I have learned an interesting idea about a few unanswered questions from a biblical perspective. I would like to assert that there is a huge gap between Gen 1:1, and Genesis 1:2.
Searching through through all scripture there are answers which I believe fill in the gap.
Hebrews 1:1,2 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets. Hath in these last days spoken unto us
Searching through through all scripture there are answers which I believe fill in the gap.
Hebrews 1:1,2 God, who at sundry times and in divers manners spake in time past unto the fathers by the prophets. Hath in these last days spoken unto us
by his Son, whom he hath appointed heir of all things, by whom also he made the worlds;
The reason "worlds" is plural is because there were previous creations on planet earth dating back millions and millions of years which God had to destroy.
Biblically we know that planet earth will be destroyed and a new earth will exist. It is naive to think that the current 6000 year account of existence is the first and only "world" to be destroyed.
In this passage we have the destruction of a prior inhabited earth "world".
I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was without form, and void, and the heavens, and they had no light. I beheld the mountains, and, lo, they trembled, and all the hills moved lightly. I beheld, and, lo, there was no man, and ail the birds of the heavens were fled. I beheld, and, lo, the fruitful place was a wilderness, and all the cities thereof were broken down at the presence of the LORD, and by his fierce anger. For thus hath the LORD said. The whole land shall be desolate; yet will I not make a full end (Jeremiah 4:23-27).