- Jun 25, 2003
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In the first verse of the torah , the hebrew for heaven is plural "Et Ha shamayim" .
My question is why in some orthodox commentaries where the writers are obviously fluent in hebrew do they translate it as singular in the english rendering of the verse? It is also tranlated as singular in the King James translation and I am unwilling to accept that the reason that the King James scholars translated it singular was just plain carelessness or ignorance. This was a group effort of around 40 scholars whose hebrew was certainly better than mine. I find it inconceivable that in the very first verse of translation they would miss an obvious plural in the hebrew. Obviously a judgment call was made in the translation.
Can anyone expound on the meaning of the word heavens in verse one or the meaning of the frimament being called heaven in verse eight.
My question is why in some orthodox commentaries where the writers are obviously fluent in hebrew do they translate it as singular in the english rendering of the verse? It is also tranlated as singular in the King James translation and I am unwilling to accept that the reason that the King James scholars translated it singular was just plain carelessness or ignorance. This was a group effort of around 40 scholars whose hebrew was certainly better than mine. I find it inconceivable that in the very first verse of translation they would miss an obvious plural in the hebrew. Obviously a judgment call was made in the translation.
Can anyone expound on the meaning of the word heavens in verse one or the meaning of the frimament being called heaven in verse eight.
