Out of interest in discussion I'd like to throw out an idea: Ephesians 5 describes Jesus as the head of the husband and the husband as the head of the wife... I know this is a bit of a beaten-to-death topic, but I want to offer a bit of a different perspective on its meaning. In John 5 Jesus describes his authority and power in terms of his relationship with the father. The Father gives Jesus authority and power, which is predicated on Jesus acting in harmony with the Father's will. This arrangement is cemented by the love Jesus has for the Father and the Father's love for the Son. Also, their perfectly unified will. Anyone in authority as a believer has authority on similar terms... i.e. it is not their own, but Jesus'. They only have authority as long as they are acting in harmony with the will of Jesus and pointing folks to Jesus. Christ's authority is extended through those who reflect him... so we don't obey the pastor's authority, we obey Jesus' authority... The pastor only has authority so long as he is acting in harmony with Christ. The moment he strays, Christ's authority doesn't follow. So, what if the headship Paul describes in relation to marriage is really a commission to act like Jesus in the marriage. Headship is totally predicated on Christlike Behavior. Failure to imitate Christ is forfeiture of headship... This brings me to the second half of this argument. If a husband is to imitate Christ in his marriage, he is pretty much gonna have to avoid acting like the gentile leaders, lording over his family. Instead, he is to wash feet, serve humbly, deny himself, die for them, point to the father, love to an insane degree, etc. There's this weird assumption amongst some Christians that wives have to put up with awful behavior, foolishness, etc. But, they are to obey Christ first and foremost. If a husband is not acting like Jesus, submission to and imitation of Christ is her primary command. In fact, she is only committed to obeying Christ ever... The husband is responsible to point the way.
This makes the passage in Ephesians gel with the submit to one another command a couple of verses earlier in ephesians 5:21... "submitting to one another out of reverence for Christ." Does this make sense? Thoughts or responses? I've been wrestling with the idea for a while and have little feedback.
This makes the passage in Ephesians gel with the submit to one another command a couple of verses earlier in ephesians 5:21... "submitting to one another out of reverence for Christ." Does this make sense? Thoughts or responses? I've been wrestling with the idea for a while and have little feedback.
