M
MacNeil, D.
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"That area" you describe is using something you have a right to for a criminal purpose(i.e. something you don't have a right to do), fraud and inciting violence in the examples given.
The first amendment doesn't mean I have the right to commit fraud or libel/slander and other crimes involving printed/spoken words anymore than the second amendment means I have the right to commit armed robbery.
Do you think we should ban a person who commits computer crimes from owning a computer, a newspaperman who prints libel from owning a press, or someone who runs a Ponzi scheme from owning a phone and printer?
That's the kind of thing you're talking about with guns being a conditional right. They don't practice the equilvalent with the first amendment. The "yelling fire in a crowded theater" type examples don't apply.
I'm not sure that's my actual quote. I agree though.
While you're right in saying that the balancing tests a court uses to determine whether the government has a right to limit speech content is not the same test for limiting the right to bear arms, there are tests that courts will use for the second amendment.
Both first and second amendment tests are similar in this way: the government's interest in restricting a constitutionally guaranteed right is balanced against the private right itself. Where the fulcrum lies depends on a variety of factors, such as how narrowly the government's law infringes, and whether the law does what it says it does, and the government's stated purpose, but the bottom line is that there are no absolute rights.
The government can criminalize falsely shouting "fire" in a theater, it can also criminalize private possession of anti-tank rockets.
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