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Great Article on Translation Accuracy

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SavedByGrace3

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daveleau

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ClementofRome said:
...and here we go again!

I agree. There are more benefitial topics than trying to say that Bible translation A is better than Bible tranlsation B. God works through all of the translations that teach His Word.
 
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ClementofRome

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daveleau said:
I agree. There are more benefitial topics than trying to say that Bible translation A is better than Bible tranlsation B. God works through all of the translations that teach His Word.
But if your assumption is that your particular version is somehow salvific, then the discussion becomes evangelistic, no?

I am just being a smart guy. Sorry. I just have no patience or time to beat this dead horse.
 
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Harry the Heretic

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Thadman, that's the hendrickson publication of the original. I have it also. I have only found 2 instances of a change when compared to my "updated" KJV. Both were putting one phrase before the other. I believe the argument might be better served in addressing which greek text is better, and why no modern translations prefer the received text. Did God allow a corrupt text to exist until the 19th century?
 
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The Thadman

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The reason I posted that plate was to show how different the text actually looked when compared to today's KJV. Sure, there are changed spellings, flipped grammar and the not, but there are insertions and deletions.

I personally, do not believe the Greek to be authentic as I lean towards an Aramaic original to most of the NT. In the Greek NT, poetry, puns, and wordplay are lost where mistranslations, polysemy ("split words"), and scribal errors are introduced. I have been researching this for the past four years

Peace!
-Steve-o
 
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Harry the Heretic

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I have read arguments for both sides (greek vs aramaic) but no serious study.

I have an aramaic copy translated by George M. Lamsa. Is that a good translation or is there one you would recommend? Mine has the ending to Mark, and the account of the adulturous woman in John, but is missing the "three that bear wittness in heaven" verse in 1st John.

God bless
 
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The Thadman

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Lamsa is using the proper text, but do not trust his translation. He's a mystic, not a scholar.

In all Aramaic manuscripts to date, there is no beginning to chapter 8 of John, and the verse in 1st John is not there. These verses were nt original to the NT, and were added later by scribes.

Peace!
-Steve-o
 
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The Thadman

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christian-only said:
The apostles spoke in Greek - obvious since they started churches all over Greece. Yet, we are expected to believe they wrote to these Greek speaking churches in Aramaic??? Yeah right! I don't write to Mexicans in Japanese! LOL!

They could not have been Greek speaking churches, as there is Aramaic poetry, punnery, and scribal errors underlying the Greek text

http://www.aramaicnt.org/index.php?PAGE=1st-Timothy/GreatPoem
http://www.aramaicnt.org/index.php?PAGE=1st-Corinthians/ToBeBurned
http://www.aramaicnt.org/index.php?PAGE=1st-Peter/ZealousEmulation
http://www.aramaicnt.org/index.php?PAGE=Romans/DoWeWaitForIt
http://www.aramaicnt.org/index.php?PAGE=Romans/RighteousMan

And these are just examples

Peace!
-Steve-o
 
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