But it doesn't follow from this that causes can only produce effects in time. If your argument is expressed in a syllogism, the fallacy will be more clearly seen.
1. If an effect does not come about until after its efficient cause acts in order to cause it to be, then cause and effect are necessarily temporal
2. An effect does not come about until after its efficient cause acts in order to causes it to be.
3. Therefore, cause and effect are necessarily temporal
Now two is true, we agree. But look at premise 1. For premise 1, you would need an argument which would would conclude with temporality being a necessary condition for causal relations.
1. If we speak of temporal cause and effect relations in terms of before and after
, then temporality is a necessary condition for causal relations
2. We speak of temporal cause and effect relations in terms of before and after
3. Therefore, temporality is a necessary condition for causal relations
Now premise 2 we can agree on but here is the kicker, it is trivial!!
Of course we speak of cause and effect relationships which take place in time using terms like before and after! But this does nothing to show that a timeless state of affairs wherein causal relations obtain does not exist!
A supporting argument for your premise 1 would entail a non-sequitur, for it does not follow from the fact that we speak of temporal cause and effect relations in terms of before and after that temporality is a necessary condition for causal relations. At most this would show that temporality is merely a sufficient condition for causal relations.
At most, your argument shows that effects do not arise without a cause, which is the point I have been trying to get people to agree with me on for days now!!!