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God never really loved Gentiles ?

johnjanuary1984

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Is it true that God only provided salvation to the Gentiles out of spite for the Jews ???

What I mean is ,,, so God never really loved Gentiles....... He only saved them to spite the Jews.

He only provided salvation to the Gentiles purely out of spite for the Jews ?

He only provided salvation to the Gentiles because the Jews rejected Jesus. He never really loved Gentiles. He only offered them salvation out of spite ???? Because the Jews rejected Jesus? Am I right?

Is this dispensation beliefs ???
 

Guojing

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Is it true that God only provided salvation to the Gentiles out of spite for the Jews ???

What I mean is ,,, so God never really loved Gentiles....... He only saved them to spite the Jews.

He only provided salvation to the Gentiles purely out of spite for the Jews ?

He only provided salvation to the Gentiles because the Jews rejected Jesus. He never really loved Gentiles. He only offered them salvation out of spite ???? Because the Jews rejected Jesus? Am I right?

Is this dispensation beliefs ???

Not exactly. God planned that thru the seed of Abraham, all the nations of the world will be saved. (Genesis 12:1-3)

Under the prophetic timetable, the nation of Israel shall rise and be saved first, and all Israel shall be priests that will bring gentiles to salvation (Zechariah 8:23).

That will still be true during the coming millennial reign of christ

However God also foresaw, since the foundation of the world, that Israel would not play their part (Ephesians 3:1-9).

So there was a hidden plan in him, a dispensation of Grace, to save all of us gentiles now thru the fall of Israel (Ephesians 3:9, Romans 11:11)

So all of us are now living in this current dispensation but as I have said, national Israel still have a future destiny with God, which will happen when the tribulation begins.
 
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johnjanuary1984

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Not exactly. God planned that thru the seed of Abraham, all the nations of the world will be saved. (Genesis 12:1-3)

Under the prophetic timetable, the nation of Israel shall rise and be saved first, and all Israel shall be priests that will bring gentiles to salvation (Zechariah 8:23).

That will still be true during the coming millennial reign of christ

However God also foresaw, since the foundation of the world, that Israel would not play their part (Ephesians 3:1-9).

So there was a hidden plan in him, a dispensation of Grace, to save all of us gentiles now thru the fall of Israel (Ephesians 3:9, Romans 11:11)

So all of us are now living in this current dispensation but as I have said, national Israel still have a future destiny with God, which will happen when the tribulation begins.

Not exactly??? So I'm kinda right ???

In the beginning,,,. Did God the Father love Gentiles??? Yes or no ???
 
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Guojing

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Not exactly??? So I'm kinda right ???

In the beginning,,,. Did God the Father love Gentiles??? Yes or no ???

When God called abram in genesis 12, he was a gentile like you, so yes.
 
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Guojing

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When you say, " not exactly" to me that means I'm partly right

You are viewing it from the perspective of time.

But as I said, God foresaw Israel rejection before genesis 1, so there was always a plan to save us gentiles.
 
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johnjanuary1984

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You are viewing it from the perspective of time.

But as I said, God foresaw Israel rejection before genesis 1, so there was always a plan to save us gentiles.

God foresaw?? I was under thee impression that despinsationalists deny that God is omniscient. Am I wrong ???
 
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Guojing

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And the Gospel message never occurred until after the stoning of Stephan ??? Is that correct ??

Gospel means good news, there were all kinds of good news given by God to man since genesis 3:15

But the gospel of the grace of God, which applies to all gentiles, came with the apostle Paul (Ephesians 3:1-9)
 
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johnjanuary1984

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Gospel means good news, there were all kinds of good news given by God to man since genesis 3:16

But the gospel of the grace of God, which applies to all gentiles, came with the apostle Paul (Ephesians 3:1-9)

I'm talking about John 3:16... Is John 3:16 referring to Gentiles also ???? Yes or no
 
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Guojing

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I'm taking about John 3:16... Is John 3:16 referring to Gentiles also ???? Yes or no

Yes, but Jesus was fulfilling prophecy in his first coming to Israel (Matthew 15:24), which means Israel the nation must be saved first, before gentiles could be saved.

That is why he forbid the 12 to preach the gospel of the kingdom to non Jews (Matthew 10:5)
 
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johnjanuary1984

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DiJohn 3:16 apply to Gentiles according to dispensational
Yes, but Jesus was fulfilling prophecy in his first coming to Israel (Matthew 15:24), which means Israel the nation must be saved first, before gentiles could be saved.

That is why he forbid the 12 to preach the gospel of the kingdom to non Jews (Matthew 10:5)

When Jesus spoke the words of John 3:16 .. Was he just referring to Jews ??? Yes or no ?
 
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Guojing

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DiJohn 3:16 apply to Gentiles according to dispensational


When Jesus spoke the words of John 3:16 .. Was he just referring to Jews ??? Yes or no ?

I said it applies to everyone, but you must understand the prophetic timetable

Under the prophetic timetable, the nation of Israel shall rise and be saved first, and all Israel shall be priests that will bring gentiles to salvation (Zechariah 8:23).
 
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Guojing

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Why do some dispensationalists say the Gospel didn't start until AFTER the stoning of Stephan in Acts ???

The gospel of the grace of God started with the apostle Paul, he was saved after Stephen was stoned.

But there were many good news that God released for Israel, such as the gospel of the kingdom, which as I already stated, was not to be preached to the gentiles during Jesus first coming (Matthew 10:5-8).
 
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johnjanuary1984

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I said it applies to everyone, but you must understand the prophetic timetable

Under the prophetic timetable, the nation of Israel shall rise and be saved first, and all Israel shall be priests that will bring gentiles to salvation (Zechariah 8:23).

Then there must be different sub division's when it comes to dispensational theology. Because some say John 3:16 was only for Jews. They say the Gospel for the Gentiles didn't occur until after the stoning of Stephan.
 
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Guojing

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Then there must be different sub division's when it comes to dispensational theology. Because some say John 3:16 was only for Jews. They say the Gospel for the Gentiles didn't occur until after the stoning of Stephan.

Once you are able to accept that
  1. the prophetic timetable required Israel be saved first, before gentiles could be saved, and
  2. that Jesus first coming was to fulfill prophecy,
you will be able to reconcile all these points.
 
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